Nursing Elites

1. During a clinic visit, a client with a kidney transplant asks, 'What will happen if chronic rejection develops?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality.
• B. Immunosuppressive therapy would be intensified.
• C. A second transplant would be scheduled immediately.
• D. We would monitor your kidney function closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is that dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality. Chronic rejection of a transplanted kidney can lead to kidney failure, necessitating the need for dialysis until another transplant is possible. Choice B is incorrect because although immunosuppressive therapy may be adjusted, the immediate concern is the potential need for dialysis. Choice C is incorrect because scheduling a second transplant immediately is not typically the first step following chronic rejection. Choice D is also incorrect as close monitoring of kidney function is essential but does not address the immediate need for dialysis if chronic rejection occurs.

2. A female client with type 2 diabetes reports that she has been taking her medications as prescribed but her blood glucose levels remain elevated. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's current blood glucose level.
• B. Assess the client's diet and medication adherence.
• C. Review the client's medication list for potential interactions.
• D. Obtain a hemoglobin A1c level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to review the client's medication list for potential interactions. This step is crucial as it can help identify any medications that might be contributing to the elevated blood glucose levels. Checking the current blood glucose level (choice A) is important but not the first action to address the ongoing issue. Assessing the client's diet and medication adherence (choice B) is also important, but reviewing the medication list should be the initial step to rule out any drug-related causes. Obtaining a hemoglobin A1c level (choice D) is a valuable assessment but may not address the immediate need to identify potential medication interactions.

3. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is an echocardiogram. This diagnostic test is crucial in assessing ventricular function and identifying the cause of shortness of breath in a client with heart failure. It provides valuable information about the heart's structure, function, and blood flow. While a chest X-ray may show signs of heart failure, it does not directly assess cardiac function like an echocardiogram does. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are useful to evaluate oxygenation and acid-base balance but do not provide information specific to heart function. An electrocardiogram (ECG) assesses the heart's electrical activity and rhythm, which is important but may not provide the detailed structural information needed in this scenario.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• C. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
• D. Serum pH of 7.30

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning finding in a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) as it indicates severe dehydration and hypertonicity. This high serum osmolarity level can lead to neurological complications and requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. Serum glucose levels, blood pressure, and serum pH are important parameters to monitor in HHS, but a significantly elevated serum osmolarity poses a higher risk of complications and warrants urgent attention. High serum glucose levels, like 500 mg/dL, are expected in HHS but do not directly indicate the severity of dehydration. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is within normal limits and may not be directly related to the acute complications of HHS. A serum pH of 7.30 suggests acidosis, which is important to address but may not be as immediately concerning as severe dehydration indicated by high serum osmolarity.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
• C. Tidal volume of 300 ml
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A tidal volume of 300 ml is concerning in a client with ARDS on mechanical ventilation because it indicates hypoventilation, which can lead to inadequate gas exchange and worsening respiratory status. This finding requires immediate intervention to optimize ventilation and oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are not as critical in this scenario. An oxygen saturation of 90% may be acceptable depending on the client's baseline condition and the target range set by the healthcare provider. A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but may not be immediately alarming. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits and does not require urgent intervention.

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