Nursing Elites

1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Liver function tests. Methotrexate can cause hepatotoxicity, making it essential to closely monitor liver function tests in clients receiving this medication. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specifically required for methotrexate therapy and would not provide relevant information regarding potential adverse effects of the medication.

2. In caring for a client who is receiving linezolid IV for nosocomial pneumonia, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Watery diarrhea
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Watery diarrhea. This finding is the most important to report as it may indicate Clostridioides difficile infection, a severe side effect of antibiotic therapy. Clostridioides difficile infection can lead to serious complications and requires immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are common side effects of linezolid but are not as critical as watery diarrhea in this context.

3. The charge nurse of the critical care unit informed at the beginning of the shift that a less than optimal number of registered nurses would be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse?

• A. A 34-year-old admitted today after an emergency appendectomy who has a peripheral intravenous catheter and a Foley catheter.
• B. A 48-year-old marathon runner with a central venous catheter experiencing nausea and vomiting due to electrolyte disturbance following a race.
• C. A 63-year-old chain smoker with chronic bronchitis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula and a saline-locked peripheral intravenous catheter.
• D. An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur with a Foley catheter and soft wrist restraints applied.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse because they are at the highest risk for injury and complications. The client's age, diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, and the presence of a newly fractured femur along with the Foley catheter and wrist restraints indicate a need for close monitoring and care. Choice A is less critical as the client is stable post-appendectomy. Choice B, though experiencing symptoms, is not at the same level of risk as the client in Choice D. Choice C, while requiring oxygen support, does not have the same level of acuity and complexity as the client in Choice D.

4. A woman who takes pyridostigmine for myasthenia gravis (MG) arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness. Her adult daughter tells the nurse that since yesterday her mother has been unable to smile. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Uncontrollable drooling.
• B. Inability to raise voice.
• C. Tingling of extremities.
• D. Eyelid drooping.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uncontrollable drooling can be a sign of a myasthenic crisis, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Drooling indicates difficulty in swallowing, which can lead to aspiration and respiratory compromise. Inability to raise voice (choice B) and tingling of extremities (choice C) are not typically associated with myasthenic crisis. Although eyelid drooping (choice D) is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis, it is not as urgent as uncontrollable drooling in indicating a potential crisis.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.5
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Headache
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

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