Nursing Elites

1. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum calcium level of 9 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dl
• D. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dl. In a client with ESRD receiving hemodialysis, serum creatinine should be closely monitored. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A), serum potassium levels (Choice B), and serum sodium levels (Choice D) is also important in clients with ESRD, but the most crucial indicator of kidney function in this case is serum creatinine.

2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. This test provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity. Choice B, Chest X-ray, is used to visualize the structures of the chest, including the heart and lungs, but it does not directly assess for cardiac ischemia. Choice C, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), measures the oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and assesses acid-base balance, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D, Echocardiogram, is an ultrasound of the heart that provides information about the heart's structure and function, but it is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing cardiac ischemia in this situation.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed a calcium channel blocker. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

• A. ‘I will take my medication at the same time every day.’
• B. ‘I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice while on this medication.’
• C. ‘I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.’
• D. ‘I should reduce my fluid intake to control my blood pressure.’

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The statement ‘I should reduce my fluid intake to control my blood pressure’ indicates a misunderstanding. It is important to note that fluid restriction is not typically necessary when taking calcium channel blockers. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate good understanding of medication adherence, dietary precautions, and nutrition recommendations when taking a calcium channel blocker, making them incorrect choices for further teaching.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with DKA as it may indicate worsening hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated serum potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. While elevated glucose and low bicarbonate are characteristic of DKA, hyperkalemia poses a higher immediate risk. Serum sodium within the normal range is not typically a primary concern in DKA.

5. When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• D. Administer morphine as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial intervention for a client with left-sided heart failure. This action is crucial in improving oxygen levels and reducing pulmonary congestion. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function in heart failure, but it is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administering loop diuretics helps manage fluid overload but should come after addressing oxygen needs. Morphine may be indicated for pain or anxiety in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

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