HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. What is the first action the nurse should implement for a client admitted with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed
- B. Administer pain medication as prescribed
- C. Place the client on NPO status
- D. Assess the client's abdomen for distention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the client on NPO status is the priority action for a client with acute pancreatitis. This step is crucial to rest the pancreas, prevent pancreatic stimulation, and decrease enzyme production. By withholding oral intake, the digestive system is given a chance to rest and recover. Administering intravenous fluids may be necessary but should come after placing the client on NPO status. Pain medication can be administered once the client is stabilized. Assessing the client's abdomen for distention is important but is not the initial priority in managing acute pancreatitis.
2. A client with a history of congestive heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed.
- B. Administer prescribed diuretic therapy.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation.
- D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial in improving oxygenation in clients with congestive heart failure and shortness of breath by reducing venous return to the heart and decreasing fluid overload in the lungs. This intervention helps to alleviate the client's breathing difficulty. Administering diuretic therapy (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice C) is important but should come after ensuring proper positioning. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice D) is essential but is not the first intervention needed for a client experiencing respiratory distress.
3. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
- B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
- C. Insert a nasogastric tube
- D. Prepare the client for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.
4. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client?
- A. Palpitations and shortness of breath
- B. Bradycardia and constipation
- C. Lethargy and lack of appetite
- D. Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. An overdose of thyroid preparation generally manifests symptoms of an agitated state such as tremors, palpitations, shortness of breath, tachycardia, increased appetite, agitation, sweating, and diarrhea. Palpitations and shortness of breath are signs of excessive thyroid medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect symptoms for a dosage that is too high. Bradycardia and constipation, lethargy and lack of appetite, muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin are more indicative of hypothyroidism or an insufficient dosage of levothyroxine.
5. In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not deflate completely during inspiration and the client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths
- B. Remove the mask to deflate the bag
- C. Increase the liter flow of oxygen
- D. Document the assessment data
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to document the assessment data. In this scenario, the findings indicate that the partial rebreather mask is functioning correctly as the reservoir bag should not deflate completely during inspiration. Additionally, the client's respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute falls within the normal range. There is no need to encourage the client to take deep breaths, as the respiratory rate is normal, and doing so may disrupt the client's breathing pattern. Removing the mask to deflate the bag or increasing the liter flow of oxygen are unnecessary actions based on the assessment findings.
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