Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus reports tingling in their feet. What is the nurse's best intervention?

• A. Advise the client to avoid wearing tight shoes.
• B. Refer the client to a podiatrist for foot care.
• C. Teach the client about blood sugar control and foot care.
• D. Administer insulin as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing tingling in their feet is to teach the client about blood sugar control and foot care. This is essential because tingling in the feet can be a sign of neuropathy, a common complication of diabetes. Educating the client on maintaining proper blood sugar levels and foot care practices can help manage neuropathy symptoms and prevent complications like ulcers or infections. Advising the client to avoid tight shoes (Choice A) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue. Referring the client to a podiatrist (Choice B) is important for foot care but does not directly address blood sugar control. Administering insulin (Choice D) is not the priority for managing tingling in the feet related to neuropathy.

2. What does the nurse's signature on the client’s surgical consent form signify?

• A. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
• B. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
• C. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure
• D. The client has signed the form freely and voluntarily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.

3. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication in the morning before eating.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
• D. Take the medication only when symptoms worsen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication in the morning before eating.' Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning for optimal absorption. Choice B is incorrect because while taking medication with water is generally recommended, levothyroxine specifically needs to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as taking levothyroxine with food can interfere with its absorption. Choice D is incorrect as levothyroxine should be taken regularly as prescribed, not only when symptoms worsen.

4. A young male client with an above-knee amputation (AKA) reports that his 'right foot is aching.' What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage discussion of feelings about the loss of his limb.
• B. Administer a prescription for gabapentin.
• C. Teach the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage.
• D. Offer to assist the client to a quieter location to relax.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because gabapentin is prescribed to treat phantom limb pain, which is common in individuals with amputations. Option A is not the most important intervention at this time since the client is reporting physical pain, not emotional distress. Option C is not appropriate because the client is reporting aching in the foot, not the stump. Option D does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain that needs to be managed.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

Similar Questions