HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A combination multi-drug cocktail is being considered for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500. Which nursing assessment of the client is most crucial in determining whether therapy should be initiated?
- A. Presence of viral symptoms
- B. Engages in high-risk behaviors
- C. Willingness to comply with complex drug schedules
- D. History of opportunistic infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial nursing assessment in determining whether therapy should be initiated for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500 is the client's willingness to comply with complex drug schedules. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for its effectiveness. Assessing the client's willingness and ability to comply with the complex medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent drug resistance. Choices A, B, and D, although important in the overall care of the client, are not as crucial as assessing the client's willingness to adhere to the prescribed drug regimen.
2. The nurse is preparing a female client for discharge after being treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will use douches regularly to prevent future infections.
- B. I should drink at least 8 glasses of water a day.
- C. I should avoid tight-fitting clothing.
- D. I will wipe from front to back after using the toilet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using douches is not recommended as it can disrupt the natural flora and increase the risk of infections. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements that can help prevent UTIs. Drinking an adequate amount of water helps flush out bacteria, avoiding tight-fitting clothing promotes ventilation and reduces moisture, and wiping from front to back prevents the spread of bacteria from the anal region to the urethra.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a recent MI?
- A. Elevated troponin levels
- B. Increased white blood cell count
- C. Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
- D. Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevated troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels increase within hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days. White blood cell count, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and C-reactive protein (CRP) are not specific markers for MI. An increased white blood cell count may indicate inflammation or infection, increased LDH levels can be seen in various conditions like liver disease or muscle injury, and elevated CRP is a general marker of inflammation rather than specific to MI.
4. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?
- A. Thoracentesis.
- B. Endotracheal intubation.
- C. Chest tube insertion.
- D. Bronchoscopy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.
5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Thiamine supplementation
- B. Folic acid replacement
- C. Intravenous glucose
- D. Magnesium sulfate administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.
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