HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client who is bedridden after a stroke is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing this complication?
- A. Apply lotion to the skin every 4 hours.
- B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
- D. Massage the skin at least twice a day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden clients. This intervention helps in relieving pressure on specific areas of the body, promoting circulation, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying lotion every 4 hours (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) is beneficial for some conditions but not specifically targeted at preventing pressure ulcers. Massaging the skin at least twice a day (Choice D) can actually increase the risk of skin breakdown in individuals at risk for pressure ulcers by causing friction and shearing forces on the skin.
2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Avoid leafy green vegetables while taking warfarin.
- B. Report any unusual bruising or bleeding.
- C. Take warfarin at the same time every day.
- D. Avoid alcohol consumption while on warfarin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid alcohol consumption while on warfarin.' Alcohol can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, so it should be avoided. Choice A is incorrect as leafy green vegetables contain vitamin K, which can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B is important but not directly related to alcohol consumption. Choice C is a general instruction for medication adherence but not specifically related to the interaction with alcohol.
3. A client frequently admitted to the locked psychiatric unit repeatedly compliments and invites one of the nurses to go out on a date. The nurse's response should be to
- A. Ask not to be assigned to this client or to work on another unit
- B. Tell the client that such behavior is inappropriate
- C. Inform the client that hospital policy prohibits staff from dating clients
- D. Discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client. By doing so, the nurse can reinforce professionalism, establish clear boundaries, and prevent ethical conflicts. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the client or unit does not address the issue at hand and may compromise patient care. Option B, while acknowledging the behavior, does not address the underlying reasons and boundaries. Option C, stating hospital policy, is not as therapeutic or client-centered as discussing the therapeutic relationship directly.
4. A male client with HIV on antiretroviral therapy complains of constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the client's glucose level with a glucometer.
- B. Measure the client's weight accurately.
- C. Reassure the client that weight will stabilize as viral load decreases.
- D. Increase the dose of saquinavir.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to check the client's glucose level with a glucometer. Constant hunger and thirst along with weight loss can be indicative of hyperglycemia, a possible side effect of saquinavir. Monitoring the client's glucose levels is crucial in this situation. Measuring the client's weight accurately (Choice B) is important for monitoring purposes but does not address the immediate concern of hunger, thirst, and weight loss. Reassuring the client that weight will stabilize as viral load decreases (Choice C) is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms described need immediate attention. Increasing the dose of saquinavir (Choice D) without assessing the client's glucose level can worsen the hyperglycemia.
5. An older adult client with eye dryness reports itching and excessive tearing. Which medication group is most likely to have produced this client's symptoms?
- A. Antiinfectives and antidepressants.
- B. Anticoagulants and antihistamines.
- C. Antiretrovirals and antivirals.
- D. Antihypertensives and anticholinergics.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Antihypertensives and anticholinergics. Anticholinergics are known to cause dryness of secretions, including dry eyes, which can lead to symptoms of eye dryness, itching, and excessive tearing as reported by the client. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not typically cause the symptoms described by the client. Antiinfectives, antidepressants, anticoagulants, antihistamines, antiretrovirals, and antivirals do not commonly lead to dry eyes, itching, and excessive tearing.
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