Nursing Elites

1. A client who is gravida 1, para 0, is admitted to the birthing suite in early labor and requests pain relief. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to use distraction techniques
• B. Offer to teach the client relaxation techniques
• C. Determine the client’s pain level and location
• D. Administer an opioid analgesic as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer an opioid analgesic as prescribed. Since the client is in early labor and requesting pain relief, opioids are commonly used to provide effective pain relief during labor. Encouraging distraction or teaching relaxation techniques may not be sufficient for pain management during labor, especially in the early stages when the pain intensity can increase rapidly. Determining the pain level and location is important but administering the prescribed opioid is the most appropriate action to address the client's request for pain relief.

2. When administering an intramuscular injection containing 3 ml of a painful medication, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Instill the medication quickly
• B. Insert the needle slowly
• C. Select a large, deep muscle mass
• D. Use a short, small gauge needle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Select a large, deep muscle mass. When administering an intramuscular injection with a painful medication volume of 3 ml, selecting a large and deep muscle mass is crucial. This intervention reduces discomfort for the patient and ensures proper absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because instilling the medication quickly can increase discomfort. Choice B is incorrect as inserting the needle slowly may prolong the discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as using a short, small gauge needle may not be suitable for delivering 3 ml of medication effectively into the muscle.

3. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is placed on drug therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). The client should be instructed to report which effect(s) of the medication to the healthcare provider?

• A. Reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids
• B. Bloody or blood-tinged urine
• C. Blurring of vision
• D. Weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin (Rifadin) commonly causes a reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect but should be reported to the healthcare provider for monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with rifampin therapy. Bloody or blood-tinged urine may indicate other issues such as urinary tract infection or kidney problems, blurring of vision may suggest eye problems, and significant weight gain could be related to various health conditions unrelated to rifampin.

4. The nurse is planning care for a 2-year-old child who is scheduled for an infusion of immune globulin for treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this child?

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Risk for injury
• C. Altered oral mucous membranes
• D. Risk for fluid volume deficit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When caring for a child with ITP scheduled for immune globulin infusion, the highest priority is to prevent infection. This is crucial due to the risk of bleeding associated with ITP and the immunosuppression that can be caused by the condition and its treatment. The other options, such as 'Risk for injury,' 'Altered oral mucous membranes,' and 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' are not as high a priority as preventing infection in this particular situation.

5. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?

• A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left on command
• B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area covering the right calf
• C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left
• D. Bilateral lower extremity has 3+ pitting edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant increase in the circumference of the right calf compared to the left calf is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Option A is incorrect as dorsiflexing the right foot and left on command does not specifically indicate DVT. Option B describes an ecchymosis area which is more indicative of a bruise rather than DVT. Option D suggests bilateral lower extremity edema, which is not specific to DVT and can be seen in various conditions such as heart failure or renal issues.

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