Nursing Elites

1. A client who is gravida 1, para 0, is admitted to the birthing suite in early labor and requests pain relief. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to use distraction techniques
• B. Offer to teach the client relaxation techniques
• C. Determine the client’s pain level and location
• D. Administer an opioid analgesic as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer an opioid analgesic as prescribed. Since the client is in early labor and requesting pain relief, opioids are commonly used to provide effective pain relief during labor. Encouraging distraction or teaching relaxation techniques may not be sufficient for pain management during labor, especially in the early stages when the pain intensity can increase rapidly. Determining the pain level and location is important but administering the prescribed opioid is the most appropriate action to address the client's request for pain relief.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

• A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
• B. Provide frequent mouth care
• C. Encourage small, frequent meals
• D. Offer clear liquids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics help prevent or reduce nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Providing frequent mouth care (choice B) is important for managing oral mucositis but not specifically for nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (choice C) and offering clear liquids (choice D) are beneficial strategies for managing gastrointestinal side effects but may not be as effective in controlling nausea as administering antiemetics.

3. A client who is HIV positive and taking lamivudine (Epivir) calls the clinic to report a cough and fever. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation
• B. Advise the client to increase fluid intake
• C. Advise the client to take an over-the-counter cough suppressant
• D. Advise the client to rest and call if the fever persists

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in this situation is to advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation. Given the client's HIV-positive status and medication, it is crucial to assess the cough and fever promptly to identify the underlying cause. Increasing fluid intake (choice B) may be beneficial but does not address the need for evaluation. Taking an over-the-counter cough suppressant (choice C) may not be appropriate without knowing the cause of the symptoms. Advising the client to rest and call if the fever persists (choice D) delays the necessary evaluation and treatment.

4. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing's sarcoma following examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?

• A. Take analgesics regularly to reduce the pain
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
• C. Avoid weight-bearing until the injury heals
• D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is an aggressive cancer, and prompt treatment is crucial for improving prognosis. Option A is incorrect because while pain management is important, addressing the underlying cause (sarcoma) is the priority. Option B is not as critical as seeking treatment for the sarcoma itself. Option C is not the most important instruction as the primary concern is addressing the cancer diagnosis.

5. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

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