Nursing Elites

1. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client?

• A. Palpitations and shortness of breath
• B. Bradycardia and constipation
• C. Lethargy and lack of appetite
• D. Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An overdose of thyroid preparation generally manifests symptoms of an agitated state such as tremors, palpitations, shortness of breath, tachycardia, increased appetite, agitation, sweating, and diarrhea. Palpitations and shortness of breath are signs of excessive thyroid medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect symptoms for a dosage that is too high. Bradycardia and constipation, lethargy and lack of appetite, muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin are more indicative of hypothyroidism or an insufficient dosage of levothyroxine.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• C. Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L. A potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is dangerously high in a client with CKD, and it should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not the most critical values to report before hemodialysis. While a serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is slightly elevated, it is not as urgent as a level of 6.0 mEq/L in this context. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and blood glucose of 200 mg/dl are important parameters to monitor but are not as immediately concerning before hemodialysis compared to a high potassium level.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Headache
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. This finding can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as cardiovascular events or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (Choice A) is a common symptom in CKD and can be expected with the condition itself or the treatment. Headache (Choice B) can also occur but is less specific to CKD or its treatment. Low urine output (Choice D) is a concern in CKD but may not be directly related to erythropoietin therapy.

4. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and the initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is most important to include in this client's discharge plan?

• A. Describe the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
• B. Encourage a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet.
• C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
• D. Suggest wearing a medical alert bracelet at all times.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet is crucial for a client recovering from anorexia nervosa to prevent hypoglycemic episodes. Choice A is not the most important intervention at this point since the client is already aware of hypoglycemia based on the recent event. Choice C is important but not the priority in this situation where dietary intervention is crucial. Choice D, suggesting a medical alert bracelet, is not as essential as ensuring proper nutrition to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes.

5. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. This test provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity. Choice B, Chest X-ray, is used to visualize the structures of the chest, including the heart and lungs, but it does not directly assess for cardiac ischemia. Choice C, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), measures the oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and assesses acid-base balance, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D, Echocardiogram, is an ultrasound of the heart that provides information about the heart's structure and function, but it is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing cardiac ischemia in this situation.

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