HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client?
- A. Palpitations and shortness of breath
- B. Bradycardia and constipation
- C. Lethargy and lack of appetite
- D. Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. An overdose of thyroid preparation generally manifests symptoms of an agitated state such as tremors, palpitations, shortness of breath, tachycardia, increased appetite, agitation, sweating, and diarrhea. Palpitations and shortness of breath are signs of excessive thyroid medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect symptoms for a dosage that is too high. Bradycardia and constipation, lethargy and lack of appetite, muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin are more indicative of hypothyroidism or an insufficient dosage of levothyroxine.
2. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?
- A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
- B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
- C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
- D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.
3. Which of the following is a primary goal of nursing?
- A. Assist patients in achieving a peaceful death.
- B. Enhance personal knowledge and skills to improve patient outcomes.
- C. Champion quality of life over quantity of life.
- D. Manage costs to enhance patients' quality of life.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary goal of nursing is to assist patients in achieving a peaceful death if recovery is not feasible. This involves providing comfort, dignity, and support during the end-of-life process. Choice B is incorrect because while improving personal knowledge and skills is important, it is not the primary goal of nursing. Choice C, advocating for quality of life over quantity of life, is a valid aspect of nursing care but may not always be the primary goal. Choice D, managing costs to enhance patients' quality of life, is not a primary goal of nursing, as the focus should primarily be on patient care and well-being, rather than financial considerations.
4. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care of a client who has had a stroke. The client is experiencing severe dysphagia with choking and coughing while eating. Which of the following nutritional therapies should the nurse expect to include in the plan of care?
- A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
- B. Supplements via NG tube
- C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
- D. Mechanical soft diet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mechanical soft diet. A mechanical soft diet is appropriate for clients with severe dysphagia as it helps reduce the risk of choking and aspiration by providing food that is easier to swallow. Choice A, NPO until dysphagia subsides, may be necessary initially but is not a long-term solution. Choice B, supplements via NG tube, may be considered if the client is unable to meet their nutritional needs orally, but it does not address the texture modification needed for dysphagia. Choice C, initiation of total parenteral nutrition, is typically reserved for clients who cannot tolerate any oral intake and is not the first-line option for dysphagia management.
5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?
- A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
- B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
- C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
- D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.