Nursing Elites

1. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client?

• A. Palpitations and shortness of breath
• B. Bradycardia and constipation
• C. Lethargy and lack of appetite
• D. Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An overdose of thyroid preparation generally manifests symptoms of an agitated state such as tremors, palpitations, shortness of breath, tachycardia, increased appetite, agitation, sweating, and diarrhea. Palpitations and shortness of breath are signs of excessive thyroid medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect symptoms for a dosage that is too high. Bradycardia and constipation, lethargy and lack of appetite, muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin are more indicative of hypothyroidism or an insufficient dosage of levothyroxine.

2. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• C. Administer intravenous morphine as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Loop diuretics (Choice B) may be indicated to manage fluid overload in heart failure but are not the immediate priority in this case. Administering morphine (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for shortness of breath in heart failure and should be considered after addressing oxygenation and underlying causes. Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample (Choice D) can provide valuable information but is not the initial action needed to address the client's acute respiratory distress.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction who was hospitalized 24 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower quadrant.
• B. Rebound tenderness in the upper quadrants.
• C. Tympany with percussion of the abdomen.
• D. Light-colored gastric aspirate via the nasogastric tube.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rebound tenderness in the upper quadrants may indicate peritonitis, which requires prompt medical attention. Hypoactive bowel sounds are expected in small bowel obstruction and would not be a priority over signs of peritonitis. Tympany with percussion is a normal finding and not a cause for immediate concern. Light-colored gastric aspirate could indicate various issues but is not as urgent as peritonitis.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Assess the client's respiratory rate.
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
• D. Elevate the head of the bed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is crucial in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. This assessment helps determine if the current oxygen therapy is effective or if adjustments are necessary. While administering a bronchodilator is important in managing COPD, assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence to address the client's immediate oxygen needs. Assessing the respiratory rate is also important but evaluating oxygen saturation provides more direct information about the client's oxygen status. Elevating the head of the bed can improve ventilation but is not the priority when assessing oxygen saturation in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen.

5. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and diplopia. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?

• A. Monitor for signs of alcohol withdrawal.
• B. Administer thiamine as prescribed.
• C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce confusion.
• D. Initiate fall precautions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer thiamine as prescribed. This intervention is a priority for clients with chronic alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, a serious complication of thiamine deficiency. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy. Initiating fall precautions (choice D) is also important but not the priority compared to administering thiamine to prevent a life-threatening condition.

Similar Questions