HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. ‘I will take my medication in the morning before breakfast.’
- B. ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’
- C. ‘I should change positions slowly to avoid dizziness.’
- D. ‘I should avoid abrupt discontinuation of the medication.’
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’ This statement indicates a misunderstanding as beta-blockers do not typically affect potassium levels. The other choices (A, C, and D) are all appropriate statements for a client prescribed a beta-blocker. Choice A shows understanding of the timing of medication administration, choice C addresses orthostatic hypotension concerns, and choice D highlights the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication to prevent adverse effects.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Obtain a sputum culture.
- D. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, the priority intervention should be to administer oxygen therapy as prescribed. This is crucial to improve oxygenation, especially in a client with compromised respiratory function. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing but is secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation. Obtaining a sputum culture and administering antibiotics are important steps in the treatment of pneumonia but come after ensuring adequate oxygen supply.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a blood glucose level.
- B. Administer an anticoagulant as prescribed.
- C. Perform a neurological assessment.
- D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing a neurological assessment is the priority in this situation as it helps in evaluating the cause of the new onset of confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. This assessment will provide crucial information about the client's neurological status, which can guide further interventions. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice A) is important but should not be the first step when dealing with a new onset of confusion. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice B) or aspirin (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the underlying cause, but assessing the neurological status comes first to determine the appropriate course of action.
4. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical areas of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Stroke the inner thigh below the perineum to initiate urinary flow
- B. Contract, hold, and then relax the pubococcygeal muscle
- C. Pour warm water over the external sphincter at the distal glans
- D. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic regions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is applying pressure in the wrong region (umbilical area) and should be instructed to apply pressure at the suprapubic area. Applying downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region helps in emptying the bladder effectively by assisting in pushing the urine out through the urethra. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific issue of applying pressure to help empty the bladder using the Crede Method.
5. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment
- B. Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours.
- C. Have the mother check the child's temperature every 4 hours for the next 24 hours
- D. Transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to implement is to cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment to prevent infection. In cases of puncture wounds like stepping on a rusty nail, the immediate concern is to reduce the risk of infection. Providing teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours is important as well, but it should come after the wound is cleansed. Checking the child's temperature and transferring to the emergency department for a gamma globulin injection are not the immediate priorities in this scenario.
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