HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is complaining of chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
- C. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
- D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is the first priority in assessing for ischemia or infarction in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction. This diagnostic test provides crucial information about the heart's electrical activity and helps in identifying any acute cardiac changes. Administering oxygen therapy and nitroglycerin can be important interventions, but obtaining an ECG takes precedence as it directly assesses the client's cardiac status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is also essential, but in this scenario, assessing for cardiac indications through an ECG is the initial step.
2. The nurse observes an adolescent client preparing to administer a prescribed corticosteroid medication using a metered dose inhaler. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remind the client to hold their breath after inhaling the medication
- B. Confirm that the client has correctly shaken the inhaler
- C. Affirm that the client has correctly positioned the inhaler
- D. Ask the client if they have a spacer to use for this medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Reminding the client to hold their breath after inhaling the medication is crucial as it helps ensure the medication is absorbed into the lungs. Option B is incorrect because shaking the inhaler is not directly related to the client's inhalation technique. Option C is incorrect as correct positioning of the inhaler is important but not the immediate action needed in this situation. Option D is incorrect as asking about the spacer is not the most relevant action to take at this moment.
3. During a clinic visit, a client with a kidney transplant asks, 'What will happen if chronic rejection develops?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality.
- B. Immunosuppressive therapy would be intensified.
- C. A second transplant would be scheduled immediately.
- D. We would monitor your kidney function closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is that dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality. Chronic rejection of a transplanted kidney can lead to kidney failure, necessitating the need for dialysis until another transplant is possible. Choice B is incorrect because although immunosuppressive therapy may be adjusted, the immediate concern is the potential need for dialysis. Choice C is incorrect because scheduling a second transplant immediately is not typically the first step following chronic rejection. Choice D is also incorrect as close monitoring of kidney function is essential but does not address the immediate need for dialysis if chronic rejection occurs.
4. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and diplopia. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?
- A. Monitor for signs of alcohol withdrawal.
- B. Administer thiamine as prescribed.
- C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce confusion.
- D. Initiate fall precautions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer thiamine as prescribed. This intervention is a priority for clients with chronic alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, a serious complication of thiamine deficiency. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy. Initiating fall precautions (choice D) is also important but not the priority compared to administering thiamine to prevent a life-threatening condition.
5. A female client who is admitted to the mental health unit for opiate dependency is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg PO for withdrawal symptoms. The client begins to complain of feeling nervous and tells the nurse that her bones are itching. Which finding should the nurse identify as a contraindication for administering the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate of 85 bpm.
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute.
- D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clonidine can lower blood pressure, so a BP of 90/76 mm Hg may indicate that it is unsafe to administer another dose. In this situation, the low blood pressure reading indicates that the client is already experiencing hypotension, which is a common side effect of clonidine. Administering more clonidine could further lower the blood pressure, leading to potential complications. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal limits and do not serve as contraindications for administering clonidine in this scenario.
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