the nurse is providing care for a client with severe peripheral arterial disease pad the client reports a history of rest ischemia with leg pain that
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. The nurse is providing care for a client with severe peripheral arterial disease (PAD). The client reports a history of rest ischemia, with leg pain that occurs during the night. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing warmth can help dilate peripheral vessels and increase blood flow, relieving ischemic pain. In PAD, where there is already compromised blood flow, elevating the legs or applying cold therapy could worsen ischemic pain by further reducing blood flow to the extremities. Encouraging ambulation and leg exercises may be beneficial in other conditions but not suitable for clients with severe PAD experiencing rest ischemia.

2. Which activity is most important for a client recovering from a hip replacement to avoid during the first few weeks of recovery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crossing the legs while sitting. Cross-leg position after a hip replacement can significantly increase the risk of hip dislocation. During the first few weeks of recovery, it is crucial for clients to avoid crossing their legs to protect the new joint. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical during the initial recovery phase. Sitting in a chair for short periods, walking with assistance, and performing light stretching exercises are generally encouraged activities that can help in the recovery process without posing a significant risk of complications like hip dislocation.

3. A client with severe dehydration is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator that the client's hydration status is improving. This reflects adequate fluid replacement and improved kidney function. Choice A is subjective and may not always indicate improved hydration. Choice C, while a positive sign, may be influenced by other factors such as medications or pain. Choice D, skin turgor returning to normal, is a delayed indicator of hydration status and may take time to improve even after hydration is initiated.

4. Which of these findings would the nurse more closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucous membranes, such as those of the eyelids and lips, are a classic sign of anemia in infants. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, resulting in tissue hypoxia, which can manifest as pale mucosa. Choice A, a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL, is within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant and would not necessarily indicate anemia. Choice C, hypoactivity, is a non-specific finding and can be present in various conditions, not specifically anemia. Choice D, a heart rate between 140 to 160, is within the normal range for an infant and is not a specific finding associated with anemia.

5. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 mEq/L?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia. With potassium levels already elevated at 6.2 mEq/L, withholding Spironolactone is essential to prevent further increase in potassium levels, which could result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Losartan (Choice A) is an angiotensin receptor blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels. Metoprolol (Choice C) is a beta-blocker and also does not impact potassium levels significantly. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so it would not be the medication to withhold in this case.

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