Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H)
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

2. At 42-weeks gestation, a client refuses induction and desires a natural delivery. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Discuss alternative ways to support her birth plan.
• B. Explain the indications for induction in post-term pregnancy.
• C. Discuss the differences between labor with oxytocin and natural labor.
• D. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the issue with the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to discuss alternative ways to support her birth plan. It is crucial to respect the client's autonomy and desires while ensuring their safety and well-being. Choice B is incorrect because while educating the client about the indications for induction is important, it is not the most immediate action to take in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on comparing labor types rather than supporting the client's birth plan. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should first engage with the client directly before involving the healthcare provider.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation of 96%.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 89%.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Decreased heart rate of 70 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates hypoxemia, which is below the normal range (usually 95-100%). This finding requires immediate intervention as it signifies inadequate oxygenation. Options A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Option A indicates a good oxygen saturation level, option C denotes a normal respiratory rate, and option D suggests a normal heart rate. Therefore, these options do not require immediate intervention compared to the critically low oxygen saturation level of 89% in option B.

4. The nurse is teaching a group of clients about managing diabetes. Which of the following should be emphasized as a goal for all diabetics?

• A. Frequent exercise and weight control
• B. Prevent eye damage
• C. Keep insulin refrigerated at all times
• D. Prevent the development of complications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frequent exercise and weight control. These should be emphasized as a goal for all diabetics because they help prevent complications and manage blood sugar levels. Regular physical activity and maintaining a healthy weight are crucial in managing diabetes as they can improve insulin sensitivity, regulate blood sugar levels, and reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choice B, preventing eye damage, is important but is more specific to diabetic retinopathy and not a general goal for all diabetics. Choice C, keeping insulin refrigerated, is essential for insulin storage but not a primary goal for all diabetics. Choice D, preventing the development of complications, is too broad and does not provide a specific actionable goal for all diabetics.

5. A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?

• A. Anticholinergics
• B. Beta blockers
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.

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