HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. The psychiatric nurse is caring for clients in an adolescent unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. A 17-year-old client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hallways
- B. An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior who is being yelled at by other clients
- C. A 16-year-old client with depression who refuses to eat meals
- D. A 15-year-old client with anxiety who is quietly reading in a corner
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by peers may escalate the situation, potentially leading to violence or self-harm. Addressing the situation quickly helps prevent harm and de-escalates the conflict. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate risks that require urgent intervention compared to the potential danger of a conflict escalating to violence with the client exhibiting antisocial behavior.
2. The healthcare professional is developing a program to promote healthy eating habits in a community with high rates of obesity. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?
- A. distributing educational pamphlets about nutrition
- B. offering cooking classes that focus on healthy recipes
- C. launching a social media campaign about the risks of obesity
- D. providing free health screenings at community events
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Offering cooking classes that focus on healthy recipes is the most effective strategy among the choices provided. These classes not only provide valuable knowledge about nutrition but also offer hands-on experience in preparing healthy meals. This practical approach can significantly impact participants' behavior and increase the likelihood of them adopting healthier eating habits. Distributing educational pamphlets may not have the same level of engagement and interaction as cooking classes. A social media campaign, while informative, may not result in direct behavioral changes. Providing free health screenings, though beneficial for early detection, does not directly address the promotion of healthy eating habits, unlike the hands-on approach of cooking classes.
3. A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Hold the medication.
- B. Call the healthcare provider.
- C. Administer the medication.
- D. Check the blood pressure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to administer the medication. Atenolol is a beta-blocker commonly used post-myocardial infarction to reduce the workload of the heart. The client's apical pulse of 65 beats per minute is within the acceptable range after a myocardial infarction. Holding the medication or calling the healthcare provider is not necessary in this scenario as the pulse rate is appropriate for administering atenolol. Checking the blood pressure is not the priority in this situation, as the focus should be on the heart rate when administering atenolol.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be seen in a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Hypernatremia.
- B. Hyperkalemia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hypokalemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, hyperkalemia is the most common electrolyte imbalance due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. This impaired kidney function leads to potassium retention in the body, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys typically still function to regulate sodium levels. Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) is not a prominent electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease unless there are additional factors involved. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is less common in chronic kidney disease, as the primary issue is usually potassium retention rather than deficiency.
5. The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?
- A. Leukopenia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.