a client with deep vein thrombosis dvt is prescribed heparin therapy what laboratory value should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin therapy. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT). During heparin therapy for DVT, it is essential to monitor the PTT to assess the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because liver function tests, prothrombin time (PT), and red blood cell count are not specifically monitored to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing clot formation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is cause for the most concern as it could indicate compromised blood circulation, potentially leading to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea are not directly related to the client's condition in atrial fibrillation and the heart rate discrepancy.

3. A client on mechanical ventilation is experiencing high-pressure alarms. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's endotracheal tube for obstruction. When a client on mechanical ventilation experiences high-pressure alarms, the first action should be to check for any potential obstructions in the airway, which can trigger the alarms. Checking the oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but not the priority when dealing with high-pressure alarms. Repositioning the client (Choice C) may be necessary later but should not be the initial action. Suctioning the client's airway (Choice D) should only be done after assessing for and addressing any obstructions in the endotracheal tube.

4. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with altered renal function being treated at home, weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance. Fluid retention or loss can significantly affect weight, making it a reliable measure. Choices A, B, and C are not as accurate indicators of fluid balance as weekly weight. Intake and output differences can vary in accuracy and may not capture all aspects of fluid balance. Changes in mucous membranes and skin turgor can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less precise indicators.

5. What is the expected outcome of prescribing a proton pump inhibitor to a client with a peptic ulcer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing gastric acid secretion, which helps prevent further irritation of the gastric mucosa and allows ulcers to heal. While promoting healing of the gastric mucosa (Choice A) is an indirect outcome of reducing gastric acid secretion, the primary mechanism of PPIs is to lower acid levels. Choice B, neutralizing the effects of stomach acid, is typically associated with antacids, not PPIs. Inhibiting the growth of Helicobacter pylori (Choice C) is usually achieved with antibiotics, not PPIs.

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