Nursing Elites

1. An older male client, who is a retired chef, is hospitalized with a diabetic ulcer on his foot. His daughter tells the nurse that her father has become increasingly obsessed with the way his food is prepared in the hospital. The nurse's response should be based on what information?

• A. His daughter's observations suggest the client is depressed
• B. His compulsiveness about food may indicate new cognitive decline
• C. Obsessiveness with food is common in diabetic clients
• D. If the client was compulsive about food when he was younger, the aging process can magnify this

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age can magnify pre-existing compulsive tendencies. If the client was detail-oriented about food earlier in life, this behavior may intensify with aging. It's important to acknowledge and address the client's concerns respectfully. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the daughter's observations do not necessarily point to depression, the compulsiveness about food does not indicate new cognitive decline without further assessment, and obsessiveness with food is not specifically common in diabetic clients.

2. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which preparation is the most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Administer an enema before the procedure.
• B. Ensure the client is NPO after midnight.
• C. Encourage the client to drink clear liquids.
• D. Verify the client has completed the bowel preparation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify that the client has completed the bowel preparation. This step is crucial to ensure the colon is clear for accurate visualization during the procedure. Administering an enema before the procedure may not always be necessary and can be uncomfortable for the client. Ensuring the client is NPO after midnight is important, but verifying bowel preparation takes precedence. Encouraging the client to drink clear liquids is a part of the preparation process but not the most critical step compared to verifying completion of bowel preparation.

3. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

• A. Have him drink several glasses of water
• B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
• C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
• D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.

4. A client with heart failure reports nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. Administer antiemetics to reduce nausea.
• B. Obtain a list of the client's cardiac medications.
• C. Perform an ECG to evaluate heart function.
• D. Review the client's dietary intake for possible causes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations in a heart failure patient is indicative of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should first obtain a list of the client's medications to verify if they are taking digoxin.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a dose of vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Increase the client’s warfarin dosage to prevent clot formation.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.

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