Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2 to 4 hours after administration
• B. 4 to 12 hours after administration
• C. 16 to 18 hours after administration
• D. 18 to 24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with a peak action time of 4 to 12 hours after administration. During this period, the risk of hypoglycemic reactions is highest. It is important for the client to be aware of this timing to prevent, recognize, and manage hypoglycemia effectively.

2. A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Peripheral neuritis
• C. Small blood vessel spasm
• D. Impaired peripheral circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities indicate peripheral neuritis, a common side effect of isoniazid (INH). This condition can be managed by supplementing with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to minimize the symptoms.

3. A client is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol?

• A. The development of complaints of insomnia
• B. The development of audible expiratory wheezes
• C. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication
• D. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/min after two doses of the medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The development of audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm, associated with propranolol. Beta-blockers can trigger bronchospasm, especially in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. This complication can lead to significant respiratory distress and should be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

4. A client receives a prescription for methocarbamol (Robaxin), and the nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the medication. Which client statement would indicate a need for further instructions?

• A. My urine may turn brown or green.
• B. This medication is prescribed to help relieve my muscle spasms.
• C. If my vision becomes blurred, I need to be concerned about it.
• D. I need to call my doctor if I experience nasal congestion from this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because blurred vision is an adverse effect of methocarbamol (Robaxin) and should be reported to a healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. Option A informs the client about a possible discoloration of urine, which is a known side effect. Option B correctly explains the purpose of the medication. Option D correctly advises the client to contact their doctor if they experience nasal congestion, which could indicate an adverse reaction.

5. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?

• A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
• B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
• C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.

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