Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2 to 4 hours after administration
• B. 4 to 12 hours after administration
• C. 16 to 18 hours after administration
• D. 18 to 24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with a peak action time of 4 to 12 hours after administration. During this period, the risk of hypoglycemic reactions is highest. It is important for the client to be aware of this timing to prevent, recognize, and manage hypoglycemia effectively.

2. The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Chest pain
• D. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Vincristine is known to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, resulting in numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Diarrhea, hair loss, and chest pain are not typically associated with vincristine use.

3. A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is reinforcing teaching for the client about the medications prescribed, including clarithromycin (Biaxin), esomeprazole (Nexium), and amoxicillin (Amoxil). Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen?

• A. My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria.
• B. These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer.
• C. The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production.
• D. These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my stomach.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection usually includes two antibacterial drugs and a proton pump inhibitor. These medications will kill the bacteria and decrease acid production.

4. A client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid) for the chronic management of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. The nurse advises the client to take which of the following products if needed for a headache?

• A. Naproxen (Aleve)
• B. Ibuprofen (Advil)
• C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred choice for pain relief in individuals taking lansoprazole for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome due to its lower risk of stomach irritation compared to NSAIDs like ibuprofen and aspirin. Naproxen, ibuprofen, and aspirin are NSAIDs that can increase the risk of stomach irritation and bleeding, which is why they are not recommended for individuals with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome who are already on lansoprazole to reduce stomach acid production.

5. While assisting in caring for a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management, a nurse notes the client's absent deep tendon reflexes. What determination should the nurse make based on this data?

• A. The magnesium sulfate is effective.
• B. The infusion rate needs to be increased.
• C. The client is experiencing cerebral edema.
• D. The client is experiencing magnesium toxicity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management exhibits absent deep tendon reflexes, this indicates magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can occur as a complication of magnesium sulfate therapy, leading to suppressed reflexes. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this sign promptly and report it to prevent further complications or harm to the client.

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