Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?

• A. Auscultate the bowel sounds.
• B. Palpate the ankles for edema.
• C. Observe the skin for bruising.
• D. Measure the body temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.

2. An adolescent client with meningococcal meningitis is receiving a continuous IV infusion of penicillin G. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver?

• A. 83
• B. 85
• C. 87
• D. 90

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 83. The pharmacy provided the infusion at 10 million units per liter, which requires a rate of 83 mL/hour. To calculate this, multiply the dosage by the volume of the IV solution and divide by the concentration of the IV solution in million units: 10 million units per liter x 8.3 L = 83 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given information.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus presents with a blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL. What is the nurse's initial action?

• A. Administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed
• B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
• C. Provide the client with a carbohydrate snack
• D. Assess the client for signs of hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a high blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL, the nurse's initial action should be to administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed. The priority is to bring down the elevated glucose level promptly to prevent further complications. Encouraging the client to drink fluids or providing a carbohydrate snack would not effectively address the elevated blood sugar level in this scenario. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is not appropriate as the client's blood sugar level is high, not low.

4. A nurse receives a report on a client who is four hours post-total abdominal hysterectomy. The previous nurse reported that it was necessary to change the client's perineal pad hourly and that it is again saturated. The previous nurse also reports that the client's urinary output has decreased. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Measure urinary output
• B. Assess for weakness or dizziness
• C. Increase IV fluids
• D. Check for vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Saturation of the perineal pad after a hysterectomy suggests excessive vaginal bleeding, which must be addressed immediately. Assessing for vaginal bleeding is the priority in this situation as it can lead to hypovolemic shock. Measuring urinary output, assessing for weakness or dizziness, and increasing IV fluids are important interventions but checking for vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to the risk of hemorrhage post-hysterectomy.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication list for a client with heart failure. Which medication should the nurse question?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Digoxin
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Carvedilol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can cause fluid retention, which may worsen heart failure symptoms. It should be used with caution or avoided in clients with heart failure. Furosemide (choice A) is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Digoxin (choice B) is a medication that helps the heart beat stronger and slower, often used in heart failure. Carvedilol (choice D) is a beta-blocker that is beneficial in heart failure management. Therefore, Ibuprofen is the medication that the nurse should question in this scenario.

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