Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is prescribed spironolactone to manage ascites. Which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Sodium
• B. Calcium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not directly affected by spironolactone use for managing ascites in cirrhosis.

2. A client is admitted with ascites, malnutrition, and recent complaints of spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Capillary refill of 8 seconds
• B. Bruises on arms and legs
• C. Round and tight abdomen
• D. Pitting edema in lower legs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A round and tight abdomen suggests fluid accumulation from ascites, which could signal a more severe underlying condition requiring immediate intervention. This finding indicates increased intra-abdominal pressure, which can lead to respiratory compromise or other serious complications. Capillary refill time, bruises on arms and legs, and pitting edema in the lower legs are important assessments but do not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention as a round and tight abdomen does in this case.

3. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Check the client's vital signs and blood pressure.
• C. Decrease the infusion rate of TPN.
• D. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.

4. The psychiatric nurse is caring for clients in an adolescent unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. A 17-year-old client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hallways
• B. An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior who is being yelled at by other clients
• C. A 16-year-old client with depression who refuses to eat meals
• D. A 15-year-old client with anxiety who is quietly reading in a corner

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by peers may escalate the situation, potentially leading to violence or self-harm. Addressing the situation quickly helps prevent harm and de-escalates the conflict. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate risks that require urgent intervention compared to the potential danger of a conflict escalating to violence with the client exhibiting antisocial behavior.

5. A client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and has a rash on the chest. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
• B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client.
• D. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and a rash on the chest is to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial in preventing the allergic reaction from worsening. Administering an antihistamine (choice A) may address the symptoms but does not address the primary concern of stopping the infusion. Slowing the infusion rate and monitoring the client (choice C) may not be sufficient if the reaction is severe. Administering epinephrine subcutaneously (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for this situation.

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