HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with cirrhosis is prescribed spironolactone to manage ascites. Which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Sodium
- B. Calcium
- C. Magnesium
- D. Potassium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not directly affected by spironolactone use for managing ascites in cirrhosis.
2. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?
- A. Trendelenburg
- B. Supine
- C. Prone
- D. Fowler's
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.
3. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of isoproterenol in D5W at 300 mcg/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse set the pump to?
- A. 100 ml/hour
- B. 75 ml/hour
- C. 60 ml/hour
- D. 125 ml/hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct infusion rate, convert 300 mcg/hour to mg/hour (300 mcg = 0.3 mg). Since the IV solution is 1 mg in 250 ml, the rate is calculated as 0.3 mg/hour = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to 75 ml/hour. Choice A (100 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (60 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is lower than the correct rate. Choice D (125 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is higher than the correct rate.
4. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
- A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Heart failure
- D. Renal failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.
5. The nurse is providing care for a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate
- B. Apply a warm compress to the left leg
- C. Elevate the client's left leg
- D. Administer a prescribed anticoagulant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the affected leg promotes venous return and reduces swelling, which is a priority intervention for a client with suspected DVT. This action helps prevent the thrombus from dislodging and causing further complications. Encouraging ambulation may dislodge the clot, leading to a pulmonary embolism. Applying a warm compress can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging the clot. Administering anticoagulants is essential but should not be the first action as elevation helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with DVT.
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