the nurse is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking a nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drug nsaid which laboratory value should the
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. The nurse is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with rheumatoid arthritis is taking NSAIDs, the nurse should monitor serum creatinine levels. NSAIDs can potentially cause kidney damage, so monitoring creatinine levels helps assess for renal impairment. While monitoring hemoglobin, potassium, and white blood cell count may also be relevant in some cases, serum creatinine is the priority due to the risk of renal complications associated with NSAID use.

2. While palpating the gallbladder of a mildly obese client, what finding does the nurse expect if the gallbladder is inflamed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. If the gallbladder is inflamed, the nurse would expect to find severe tenderness and guarding, which are typical signs of acute cholecystitis. This indicates an inflammatory process in the gallbladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because slight discomfort, a sensation of fullness, or no symptoms unless extremely inflamed are not typical findings associated with gallbladder inflammation.

3. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

4. A client with pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention has the highest priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate. In a client with pheochromocytoma, the highest priority intervention is to ensure adequate intravascular volume before initiating any other treatment. This helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur due to the release of catecholamines during tumor manipulation. While monitoring blood pressure frequently is essential, ensuring adequate intravascular volume takes precedence. Administering pain medication and antihypertensive medications are important but are not the highest priority in the initial management of pheochromocytoma.

5. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.

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