Nursing Elites

1. A client with adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the ICU with acute adrenal crisis. The client's vital signs include heart rate 138 bpm and BP 80/60. What is the nurse's first intervention?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with adrenal crisis and hypotension is to administer an IV fluid bolus. In adrenal crisis, the body is deficient in cortisol, leading to hypotension. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the blood pressure. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN antipyretic (Choice C) is not indicated as the client's vital signs do not suggest fever. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension in adrenal crisis.

2. An older client with SIRS has a temperature of 101.8°F, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute. Which additional finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• B. Elevated WBC count
• C. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• D. Oxygen saturation of 95%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL indicates possible acute kidney injury, which can occur during severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Reporting this value promptly allows for interventions to prevent further renal damage. Elevated WBC count (choice B) is a common feature of SIRS and may not be as urgently indicative of immediate organ damage as high creatinine levels. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg (choice C) is relatively low but may be a typical finding in SIRS; however, renal function is critical in this context. Oxygen saturation of 95% (choice D) is within normal limits and is not as concerning as a high creatinine level in this scenario.

3. A client with a history of closed head injury has a radial artery catheter in place and complains of numbness and pain distal to the insertion site. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the site for further complications.
• B. Promptly remove the catheter from the radial artery.
• C. Elevate the client’s arm above the heart.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider and prepare for surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weak pulse and numbness distal to a radial artery catheter may indicate occlusion or damage to the artery, and immediate removal of the catheter is necessary to prevent complications. Therefore, promptly removing the catheter from the radial artery (Choice B) is the correct action. Monitoring the site (Choice A) would delay necessary intervention, elevating the client's arm (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue, and notifying the healthcare provider for surgery (Choice D) without removing the catheter promptly could lead to further complications.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving digoxin therapy. The nurse reviews the client's lab results and notes that the serum potassium level is 3.0 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Hold the next dose of digoxin
• D. Increase dietary potassium intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients receiving digoxin therapy, low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, when the nurse notes a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L, it is crucial to hold the next dose of digoxin. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions, such as potassium supplementation, can be implemented. Administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider guidance may lead to rapid potassium level changes and potential adverse effects. Increasing dietary potassium intake alone may not promptly address the low serum potassium level in this acute situation.

5. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

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