a client with adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the icu with acute adrenal crisis the clients vital signs include heart rate 138 bpm and bp 8060 wh
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the ICU with acute adrenal crisis. The client's vital signs include heart rate 138 bpm and BP 80/60. What is the nurse's first intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with adrenal crisis and hypotension is to administer an IV fluid bolus. In adrenal crisis, the body is deficient in cortisol, leading to hypotension. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the blood pressure. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN antipyretic (Choice C) is not indicated as the client's vital signs do not suggest fever. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension in adrenal crisis.

2. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.

3. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An adolescent expressing 'life without purpose' after taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) may be indicating suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. The initial period of antidepressant treatment can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts, especially in younger populations. Increased appetite (Choice A) is a common side effect of duloxetine and may not require immediate follow-up. Mood swings (Choice C) and insomnia (Choice D) are also possible side effects of the medication but are not as urgent as addressing suicidal ideation.

4. The nurse is teaching a group of women about osteoporosis and exercise. The nurse should emphasize the need for which type of regular activity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight-bearing exercise. Weight-bearing exercise helps build and maintain bone density, which is critical in preventing osteoporosis. Activities like aerobic exercises, stretching, and low-impact exercises such as swimming are beneficial for overall fitness but do not directly contribute to improving bone strength, making them less effective in preventing osteoporosis.

5. A 78-year-old client with diabetes is being taught how to care for his feet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Soaking feet daily can lead to excessive moisture, which can increase the risk of skin breakdown or infection in diabetic clients. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements for foot care in diabetic clients. Using a mirror for daily foot checks helps in early detection of any issues, applying lotion while avoiding the area between the toes helps keep the skin moisturized without creating a risk for fungal infections, and wearing properly fitting shoes is important to prevent pressure points and potential injuries.

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