HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale of insulin aspart every 6 hours are prescribed. What actions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Teach subcutaneous injection technique, site rotation, and insulin management
- B. Coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals at consistent times and intervals
- C. Review with the client proper foot care and prevention of injury
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Effective diabetes management involves comprehensive care, including proper foot care, insulin administration technique, and maintaining carbohydrate consistency with meals. All of these interventions are critical in reducing hyperglycemic episodes and managing diabetes.
2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. The client refuses to take medication and states 'I don't think I need those medications. They make me too sleepy and drowsy. I insist that you explain their use and side effects.' The nurse should understand that
- A. A referral is needed to the psychiatrist who is to provide the client with answers
- B. The client has a right to know about the prescribed medications
- C. Such education is an independent decision of the individual nurse whether or not to teach clients about their medications
- D. Clients with schizophrenia are at a higher risk of psychosocial complications when they know about their medication side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client has a legal right to be informed about their treatment, including medication uses and side effects, as part of informed consent. This helps ensure that the client can make an informed decision about their care. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse can provide the client with information about their medications. Choice C is incorrect as it is not an independent decision of the nurse but a professional responsibility to educate clients. Choice D is incorrect as knowledge about medication side effects can actually empower clients to manage their condition effectively.
3. When caring for an immobile client, what nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
- A. Risk for fluid volume deficit.
- B. Impaired gas exchange.
- C. Risk for impaired skin integrity.
- D. Altered tissue perfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for an immobile client, the nursing diagnosis with the highest priority is impaired gas exchange. This is because impaired gas exchange implies difficulty with breathing, which is essential for sustaining life. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for all bodily functions, and any impairment in gas exchange can lead to serious complications, making it the priority nursing diagnosis to address in an immobile client. Choices A, C, and D are important considerations as well when caring for an immobile client, but they are secondary to impaired gas exchange. Risk for fluid volume deficit may occur due to immobility, but ensuring proper gas exchange takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate survival. Risk for impaired skin integrity is a concern in immobile clients but does not pose an immediate threat to life like impaired gas exchange. Altered tissue perfusion is also critical but is usually a consequence of impaired gas exchange, reinforcing the priority of addressing gas exchange first.
4. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?
- A. Clonidine hydrochloride
- B. Carbamazepine
- C. Furosemide
- D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.
5. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ask the parent about recent exposure to contagious diseases
- B. Review the child’s immunization record
- C. Measure the child’s temperature
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.