HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is showing signs of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in his care plan?
- A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
- B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
- C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
- D. Monitor for the onset of polyuria greater than 150 ml/hour.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan is to evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations. This is crucial in monitoring renal function and detecting any worsening renal impairment. Option A is not directly related to managing renal function in this case. Option C focuses more on urinary characteristics rather than renal function monitoring. Option D addresses polyuria, which is an excessive urine output, but it does not specifically address the need for evaluating renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Increased abdominal girth
- C. Confusion and altered mental status
- D. Yellowing of the skin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Confusion and altered mental status are the most concerning clinical findings in a client with cirrhosis because they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema (choice A) and increased abdominal girth (choice B) are common manifestations of cirrhosis but are not as acutely concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Yellowing of the skin (choice D) is due to jaundice, which is already present in the client and does not directly indicate a worsening condition like confusion and altered mental status.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing. This finding is concerning as it may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but not as immediately concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) may be present in pneumonia but are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the increased work of breathing shown by the use of accessory muscles.
4. Which instruction is most important for a client who receives a new plan of care to treat osteoporosis?
- A. Start a weight-bearing exercise plan.
- B. Increase consumption of foods rich in calcium.
- C. Arrange a bone density test every year.
- D. Stay upright after taking the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stay upright after taking the medication.' This instruction is crucial for clients receiving medications like bisphosphonates to prevent esophageal irritation or erosion. While weight-bearing exercises (choice A) are important for bone health, staying upright after medication intake takes precedence. Increasing calcium-rich foods (choice B) is beneficial but not the most important immediate instruction. Scheduling bone density tests (choice C) is necessary for monitoring osteoporosis but is not as critical as staying upright after medication.
5. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client's plan of care?
- A. Record urine output every hour
- B. Monitor blood pressure frequently
- C. Evaluate neurological status
- D. Maintain seizure precautions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure frequently is the highest priority intervention for a client diagnosed with pheochromocytoma. This rare tumor can lead to life-threatening hypertension due to catecholamine secretion. Evaluating neurological status and maintaining seizure precautions are important but are not the highest priority in this case. Recording urine output, though essential for overall assessment, is not the priority compared to monitoring blood pressure in a client with pheochromocytoma.
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