HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is showing signs of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in his care plan?
- A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
- B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
- C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
- D. Monitor for the onset of polyuria greater than 150 ml/hour.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan is to evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations. This is crucial in monitoring renal function and detecting any worsening renal impairment. Option A is not directly related to managing renal function in this case. Option C focuses more on urinary characteristics rather than renal function monitoring. Option D addresses polyuria, which is an excessive urine output, but it does not specifically address the need for evaluating renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
2. A client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed prednisone. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased joint pain
- B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- C. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl
- D. Fever of 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning in a client with rheumatoid arthritis on prednisone as it may indicate fluid retention or worsening heart failure. Increased joint pain, blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl, and fever of 100.4°F are important assessments but do not require immediate intervention compared to the potential severity of rapid weight gain.
3. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker. What is the best initial response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
- B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
- C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
- D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site
- B. Dry and cracked tracheostomy site
- C. Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube
- D. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a tracheostomy. It can lead to airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema but is not as urgent as a blocked airway. A dry and cracked tracheostomy site may indicate poor skin integrity but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site could suggest a localized infection, but it is not as critical as a potential airway obstruction caused by mucous plugging.
5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest
- B. Use of accessory muscles
- C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates poor oxygenation and poses a risk of tissue hypoxia, making it a critical finding that needs prompt attention. Barrel-shaped chest and inspiratory crackles are commonly seen in clients with COPD and do not necessitate immediate intervention. The use of accessory muscles may indicate increased work of breathing but does not pose the same level of immediate threat as severe hypoxemia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access