HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?
- A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
- B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
- D. Monitoring the client's intake and output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with liver cirrhosis. Which of these findings would indicate that the client is experiencing complications of the disease?
- A. Yellowing of the skin and eyes
- B. Presence of spider angiomas on the skin
- C. Ascites and peripheral edema
- D. Clay-colored stools and dark urine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clay-colored stools and dark urine are classic signs of liver dysfunction, indicating bile flow obstruction commonly seen in liver cirrhosis. This finding is a significant complication requiring immediate medical evaluation. Yellowing of the skin and eyes (jaundice) is a common symptom of liver dysfunction but is not specific to complications. Spider angiomas and ascites with peripheral edema are also associated with liver cirrhosis, but they are not indicative of immediate complications as clay-colored stools and dark urine are.
3. The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively after a femoral popliteal bypass. The upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood. The nurse's first action should be to
- A. Wrap the leg with elastic bandages
- B. Apply pressure at the bleeding site
- C. Reinforce the dressing and elevate the leg
- D. Remove the dressings and re-dress the incision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario where the upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood post-femoral popliteal bypass, the nurse's first action should be to apply pressure at the bleeding site. Applying pressure is essential to control hemorrhage and prevent further blood loss. Choice A is incorrect as wrapping the leg with elastic bandages would not address the immediate issue of controlling the bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because reinforcing the dressing and elevating the leg should come after controlling the bleeding. Choice D is incorrect as removing the dressings and re-dressing the incision should only be done after the bleeding is under control to prevent excessive blood loss.
4. Discharge instructions for a client taking alprazolam (Xanax) should include which of the following?
- A. Sedative hypnotics are effective analgesics
- B. Sudden cessation of alprazolam (Xanax) can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares
- C. Caffeine beverages can increase the effect of sedative hypnotics
- D. Avoidance of excessive exercise and high temperature is recommended
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alprazolam should not be stopped abruptly as it can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares; gradual tapering is necessary. Choice A is incorrect as sedative hypnotics are not primarily used as analgesics. Choice C is incorrect as caffeine can decrease the effects of sedative hypnotics rather than increase them. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to avoid excessive exercise or high temperature related to alprazolam use.
5. The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius)
- C. Diffuse macular rash
- D. Muscle tenderness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A high fever, such as 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius), in a client with infective endocarditis indicates that the infection may not be responding to the antibiotics and requires immediate medical evaluation. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically associated with the ineffectiveness of antibiotic therapy in infective endocarditis.
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