HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A male client with cancer who has lost 10 pounds during the last months tells the nurse that beef, chicken, and eggs, which used to be his favorite foods, now taste 'bitter'. He complains that he simply has no appetite. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Suggest the use of alternative sources of protein such as dairy products and nuts.
- B. Encourage the client to eat smaller, more frequent meals.
- C. Offer nutritional supplements between meals.
- D. Discuss the possibility of appetite stimulants with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Offering alternative protein sources like dairy products and nuts can help maintain nutrition when the client finds certain foods unpalatable, as in this case where beef, chicken, and eggs taste 'bitter'. Encouraging smaller, more frequent meals may not address the issue of unpalatable foods. Offering nutritional supplements between meals may not specifically address the problem of protein intake. Discussing appetite stimulants should be considered after exploring less invasive options first.
2. A client presents at the clinic with blepharitis. What instructions should the nurse provide for home care?
- A. Use bilateral eye patches while sleeping to prevent injury to the eyes.
- B. Wear sunglasses when outdoors to prevent photophobia.
- C. Apply cold compresses to reduce inflammation.
- D. Apply warm moist compresses then gently scrub eyelids with diluted baby shampoo.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Blepharitis is managed with warm moist compresses to help loosen debris and oils on the eyelids, followed by gentle scrubbing with a mild solution like diluted baby shampoo. This helps in controlling the condition. Choice A is incorrect as using eye patches while sleeping is not a standard recommendation for blepharitis. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sunglasses does not directly treat blepharitis but may help with light sensitivity. Choice C is incorrect as cold compresses are not typically used for blepharitis, as warm compresses are more effective in managing the condition.
3. A nurse plans to call the healthcare provider to report an 0600 serum potassium level of 2 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI), but the charge nurse tells the nurse that the healthcare provider does not like to receive early morning calls and will make rounds later in the morning. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Contact the healthcare provider immediately to report the laboratory value regardless of the advice.
- B. Document the finding and report it when the healthcare provider makes rounds.
- C. Notify the charge nurse that you are following the chain of command.
- D. Administer a potassium supplement and notify the provider later.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A nurse should contact the healthcare provider immediately to report a critically low potassium level of 2 mEq/L. Potassium levels below the normal range can lead to life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification is essential to ensure timely intervention and prevent harm to the patient. Option B is incorrect as delaying reporting such a critical value can jeopardize patient safety. Option C is not the priority in this situation; the focus should be on patient care. Option D is dangerous and inappropriate as administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider's guidance can be harmful, especially with a critically low level.
4. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
- B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
- C. Insert a nasogastric tube
- D. Prepare the client for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?
- A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
- B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
- D. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial to evaluate kidney function and fluid balance. Elevated creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which is common in heart failure due to decreased cardiac output and renal perfusion. Serum sodium levels (choice A) are important but are more closely associated with fluid balance and heart failure exacerbation. Serum potassium (choice B) is also important to monitor, but it is more closely linked to cardiac arrhythmias rather than kidney function. Serum glucose levels (choice D) are significant but are not the priority for monitoring in left-sided heart failure.
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