Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute
• B. Presence of a new murmur
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The presence of a new murmur in a client with atrial fibrillation may indicate a valvular problem or other complications, requiring immediate reporting. A heart rate of 58 beats per minute is within the normal range for some individuals with atrial fibrillation, so it is not an immediate concern. An INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating appropriate anticoagulation. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

3. A client with a head injury is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client may be experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Widening pulse pressure
• B. Sudden drop in heart rate
• C. A decrease in urine output
• D. Elevated blood pressure and widening pulse pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the body's compensatory mechanisms lead to an elevation in blood pressure and a widening pulse pressure. This occurs due to the body's attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion. Therefore, elevated blood pressure and widening pulse pressure are classic signs of increased ICP and necessitate immediate attention. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a widening pulse pressure, sudden drop in heart rate, or decreased urine output are not specific indicators of increased ICP.

4. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and the interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion.
• B. Have the client sign the consent form.
• C. Document the conversation and witness the consent.
• D. Ask the client directly if she has any questions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion. Verbal consent is not sufficient; it is crucial to ensure that the client fully comprehends the risks and benefits of the surgical procedure. By asking the interpreter to provide a detailed explanation of the discussion, the nurse can confirm that the client has given informed consent. Having the client sign the consent form (Choice B) without ensuring complete understanding may lead to potential misunderstandings. Documenting the conversation and witnessing the consent (Choice C) is not enough to guarantee the client's comprehension. Asking the client directly if she has any questions (Choice D) may not be effective if language barriers persist.

5. A male client with ulcerative colitis received a prescription for a corticosteroid last month, but because of the side effects, he stopped taking the medication 6 days ago. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Anxiety and restlessness
• B. Increased bowel movements
• C. Abdominal cramping
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety and restlessness. Abruptly stopping corticosteroids can cause adrenal insufficiency, leading to symptoms such as anxiety and restlessness. These symptoms indicate a potential serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased bowel movements and abdominal cramping are common side effects of ulcerative colitis and may not warrant immediate intervention. Fever and chills are not typically associated with adrenal insufficiency caused by corticosteroid withdrawal.

Similar Questions