a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning in a client with cirrhosis as they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased abdominal girth can be seen in ascites, yellowing of the skin is due to jaundice, and peripheral edema is associated with fluid retention in cirrhosis, but confusion and altered mental status are more closely linked to hepatic encephalopathy, which can progress rapidly and needs urgent attention.

3. A female client reports that she drank a liter of a solution to cleanse her intestines but vomited immediately. How many ml of fluid intake should the nurse document?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 760 ml. After vomiting 240 ml (1 cup), the nurse should document the remaining 760 ml as the fluid intake. Choice A (240 ml) is the amount vomited, not the total intake. Choice B (500 ml) and Choice D (1000 ml) are the total intake, not considering the vomiting.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is most concerning in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is a sign of increased central venous pressure but is not as concerning as pulmonary congestion. Crackles in the lungs (Choice B) are common in heart failure due to fluid accumulation but are not as immediately concerning as severe shortness of breath. Peripheral edema (Choice D) is a manifestation of fluid retention in the body but is less indicative of acute pulmonary distress compared to shortness of breath.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, which requires immediate intervention as it can lead to life-threatening complications. Fever, increased joint pain, and swelling in the joints are common symptoms in clients with rheumatoid arthritis but do not require immediate intervention like addressing hypocalcemia.

Similar Questions

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A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed due to early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

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