Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer an IV dose of ciprofloxacin to a client with a urinary tract infection. Which client data requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dL (398 μmol/L SI)
• B. Temperature of 101.3°F
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• D. Heart rate of 88 bpm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 4.5 mg/dL indicates severe renal impairment, which requires immediate attention before administering ciprofloxacin. Elevated serum creatinine levels suggest decreased kidney function, and giving ciprofloxacin can further harm the kidneys. Monitoring and addressing renal function are crucial to prevent worsening of renal impairment and potential drug toxicity. The temperature, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but in this scenario, the priority is to address the severe renal impairment before proceeding with ciprofloxacin administration.

3. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes bleeding on the client's cast. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to see if the area has increased
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Apply a new cast to stop the bleeding
• D. Elevate the limb to reduce blood flow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After an open reduction of the tibia, bleeding on the cast can be a concern. Outlining the area with ink and monitoring it every 15 minutes is the appropriate action to assess if the bleeding is worsening, indicating the need for further intervention. This action allows for close observation without disturbing the cast. Choice B is incorrect because while notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate action is not always necessary if the bleeding is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because applying a new cast is not the standard intervention for bleeding on a cast. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the limb may not address the underlying cause of bleeding and may not be the most appropriate action at this time.

4. A female client with major depressive disorder tells the nurse she feels worthless and can't see how her life will ever get better. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. I can understand how you feel. Tell me more about what's been going on.
• B. You're going through a tough time. Let's discuss what makes you feel this way.
• C. You sound very hopeless right now. Are you thinking about harming yourself?
• D. It's difficult to see the light when you're feeling this way, but I'm here to help you.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the best response because it directly addresses the client's expressed hopelessness and assesses the risk for self-harm. When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feeling worthless and unable to see improvement, it is essential to assess suicidal ideation to ensure their safety. Choices A, B, and D provide empathy and support, which are important but addressing suicidal ideation is the priority in this situation.

5. An 80-year-old male client with multiple chronic health problems becomes disoriented, agitated, and combative 24 hours after being admitted to the hospital. What nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Request a psychiatric consultation for the client.
• B. Reorient the client frequently to time, place, and person.
• C. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medications to reduce agitation.
• D. Obtain an order for a sitter to stay with the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reorienting the client frequently is the most important nursing intervention in this scenario. It helps reduce confusion and agitation, which are common symptoms of acute delirium in hospitalized elderly clients. Requesting a psychiatric consult (choice A) may be necessary if the reorientation does not improve the client's condition or if there are underlying psychiatric concerns, but reorientation should be attempted first. Administering antipsychotic medications (choice C) should not be the initial intervention as they can have adverse effects in elderly individuals. Obtaining a sitter (choice D) may provide support but does not directly address the client's disorientation and agitation.

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