Nursing Elites

1. A newly graduated female staff nurse approaches the nurse manager and requests reassignment to another client because a male client is asking her for a date and making suggestive comments. Which response is best for the nurse manager to provide?

• A. I have to call the supervisor to get someone else to transfer to this unit to care for him.
• B. I know you are a good nurse and can handle this client in a professional manner.
• C. I'll talk to the client about his sexual harassment and insist that he stop immediately.
• D. I'll change your assignment, but let's talk about how a nurse should respond to this kind of client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse manager is option D. Changing the assignment while providing guidance on professional boundaries and how to handle such situations is essential. Option A is not appropriate as it does not address the issue of the client's behavior. Option B, although supportive, does not offer a solution to the problem at hand. Option C is not the best approach as directly confronting the client about sexual harassment may escalate the situation further.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Obtain a blood glucose level.
• D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer 50% dextrose IV push first. In hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome, the main goal is to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels to prevent further complications. Administering dextrose intravenously can help reverse the effects of high blood glucose levels quickly. Administering intravenous fluids, monitoring urine output, and obtaining a blood glucose level are important interventions but are not the first priority in treating HHS. Administering 50% dextrose IV push takes precedence as it directly addresses the elevated blood glucose levels.

3. The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's instructions?

• A. Avoid strenuous activity for 6 weeks.
• B. Report fresh blood in the urine.
• C. Take acetaminophen for fever of 101°F.
• D. Consume 6 to 8 glasses of water daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial following a TURP procedure as it may indicate a complication such as bleeding or clot formation. This symptom requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of post-TURP care, but identifying and reporting fresh blood in the urine take precedence due to its association with potential serious complications.

4. When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours, the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?

• A. Neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP.
• B. At risk for neurological deterioration.
• C. Experiencing mild cognitive impairment.
• D. In need of immediate medical intervention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A GCS score of 14 indicates that the client is neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP. It suggests that the client's neurological status is relatively intact, with only mild impairment, if any. This finding reassures the nurse that there are currently no signs of deterioration or immediate need for intervention. Choice B is incorrect because a GCS score of 14 does not necessarily indicate immediate risk for neurological deterioration. Choice C is incorrect as mild cognitive impairment is not typically inferred from a GCS score of 14. Choice D is incorrect as immediate medical intervention is not warranted based on a GCS score of 14 without other concerning symptoms.

5. Which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurse's instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis?

• A. Egg whites, toast, and coffee.
• B. Bran muffin, mixed fruits, and orange juice.
• C. Granola and grapefruit juice.
• D. Bagel with jelly and skim milk.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Bagel with jelly and skim milk.' This choice includes skim milk, a good source of calcium, which is important for osteoporosis management. It also avoids foods that inhibit calcium absorption. Osteoporosis dietary management emphasizes increased calcium intake and reducing foods that hinder calcium absorption. Choice A only provides proteins but lacks calcium. Choice B offers fruits and a bran muffin, but it lacks a good source of calcium. Choice C has granola but misses a significant source of calcium.

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