a client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath which laboratory value should be closely monitored
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure, serum potassium levels should be closely monitored to assess for hyperkalemia, which can worsen heart failure. Monitoring serum sodium levels is not the priority in this case. Serum creatinine level monitoring is more related to kidney function than heart failure. Hemoglobin levels are important but not the primary concern when assessing heart failure exacerbation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the correct answer as it is most concerning in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. It may indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is acceptable and does not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site may be a normal finding after chest tube placement and does not necessarily indicate a complication. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube and does not require immediate intervention.

3. While performing a skin inspection for a female adult client, the nurse observes a rash that is well circumscribed, has silvery scales and plaques, and is located on the elbows and knees. These assessment findings are likely to indicate which condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Psoriasis. Psoriasis commonly presents with well-circumscribed, silvery scales and plaques, typically found on extensor surfaces like elbows and knees. Tinea corporis (A) presents as a circular rash, herpes zoster (B) presents as a painful rash following a dermatomal pattern, and drug reactions (D) have variable presentations not specific to elbows and knees with silvery scales and plaques.

4. A client with a spinal cord injury is admitted to the ICU. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition that can occur in clients with spinal cord injuries, especially those with injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure, pounding headache, profuse sweating, and flushing above the level of injury. Failure to recognize and treat autonomic dysreflexia promptly can lead to seizures, stroke, or even death. Therefore, monitoring for signs of autonomic dysreflexia is crucial in clients with spinal cord injuries. Choices B, C, and D are important interventions too, but in the context of a spinal cord injury, monitoring for autonomic dysreflexia takes priority due to its potentially life-threatening nature.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is undergoing erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, which may lead to an increase in potassium levels, predisposing the client to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels helps in early detection of hyperkalemia and appropriate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hemoglobin, serum sodium, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor in various clinical conditions, they are not specifically associated with erythropoietin therapy in chronic kidney disease.

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