Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention for a client receiving enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube?

• A. Auscultate the client's lungs for breath sounds
• B. Check the client's blood glucose level
• C. Monitor the client's bowel sounds
• D. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is crucial for clients receiving enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube to prevent aspiration. Aspiration can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Auscultating the client's lungs for breath sounds (choice A) is important but not as urgent as preventing aspiration. Checking the client's blood glucose level (choice B) and monitoring bowel sounds (choice C) are also essential aspects of care for a client receiving enteral feedings, but they do not take precedence over preventing aspiration.

2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased abdominal girth
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Yellowing of the skin
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning in a client with cirrhosis as they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased abdominal girth can be seen in ascites, yellowing of the skin is due to jaundice, and peripheral edema is associated with fluid retention in cirrhosis, but confusion and altered mental status are more closely linked to hepatic encephalopathy, which can progress rapidly and needs urgent attention.

3. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, what finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously, if the client develops stridor, it is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are important to assess, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and would not require the same level of urgent intervention as stridor.

4. A client with liver cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dL
• B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dL
• C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to cognitive impairment, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are also important markers in liver cirrhosis but are not as directly associated with the risk of hepatic encephalopathy as elevated ammonia levels.

5. A female client receives a prescription for alendronate sodium (Fosamax) to treat her newly diagnosed osteoporosis. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water.
• B. Take with food to avoid stomach upset.
• C. Take before bedtime with a light snack.
• D. Take with milk to enhance absorption.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate on an empty stomach with a full glass of water. This instruction is essential to ensure proper absorption and prevent esophageal irritation. Taking alendronate with food, before bedtime with a light snack, or with milk can interfere with its absorption and effectiveness, leading to potential side effects or reduced therapeutic benefits.

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