HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Check the client’s digoxin (Lanoxin) level.
- B. Administer an anti-nausea medication.
- C. Ask if the client can eat crackers.
- D. Refer the client to a gastrointestinal specialist.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.
2. The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1000 ml of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. What condition is the client at risk for developing?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions, which contain stomach acid, can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Excessive loss of acid results in an increase in the blood pH, leading to alkalosis. Hyperkalemia (B) is an elevated potassium level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Metabolic acidosis (C) is an acid-base imbalance characterized by low pH and bicarbonate levels, which is the opposite of what would occur with the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (D) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with the scenario described in the question.
3. A client is returning home after arthroscopy of the shoulder. The nurse should tell the client:
- A. To resume full activity the next day
- B. Not to eat or drink anything until the next morning
- C. To keep the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day
- D. To report to the physician the development of fever or redness and heat at the site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After arthroscopy, it is important for the client to report any signs of infection, such as the development of fever or redness and heat at the site, to the physician promptly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. The client should not resume full activity the next day as rest and limited movement are usually recommended post-arthroscopy. It is not necessary to withhold food or fluids until the next morning; the client may resume the usual diet immediately unless otherwise instructed. While immobilization may be recommended for a period, keeping the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day is not typically necessary post-arthroscopy.
4. The healthcare professional assesses a client with petechiae and ecchymosis scattered across the arms and legs. Which laboratory results should the healthcare professional review?
- A. Red blood cell count
- B. Platelet count
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The platelet count is the most appropriate laboratory result to review in a client presenting with petechiae and ecchymosis. Petechiae and ecchymosis are indicative of potential bleeding issues, which can be caused by low platelet count or impaired platelet function. Platelets are essential for clotting, and a low platelet count can lead to bleeding disorders. Reviewing the platelet count will provide valuable information about the client's clotting ability. Choice A, red blood cell count, is not typically associated with petechiae and ecchymosis. Hemoglobin levels (Choice C) are more related to anemia than bleeding disorders like thrombocytopenia. White blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly linked to the presence of petechiae and ecchymosis, which are more specific to platelet-related issues.
5. A nurse is assessing the status of a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse concludes that the client is exhibiting adequate diabetic control if the serum level of glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is less than:
- A. 7%
- B. 9%
- C. 10%
- D. 15%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 7%. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) level of 7.0% or less is considered indicative of adequate diabetic control. This level reflects good long-term blood sugar management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an HbA1C level above 7% indicates poor diabetic control and an increased risk of complications associated with diabetes, such as cardiovascular disease, neuropathy, and retinopathy.
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