HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with emphysema reports shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy.
- B. Assess the client’s respiratory rate and effort.
- C. Prepare the client for intubation.
- D. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shortness of breath in a client with emphysema may indicate respiratory distress. Assessing the client’s respiratory rate and effort is the first priority to determine the severity of the distress and guide appropriate interventions. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice A) could be necessary, but assessing the client first is crucial to tailor the intervention. Intubation (Choice C) is an invasive procedure that is not the initial priority. Increasing oxygen flow rate (Choice D) should only be done after a thorough assessment to avoid potential harm.
2. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?
- A. Mild impairment
- B. Moderate impairment
- C. Severe impairment
- D. Normal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.
3. The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to lead poisoning?
- A. An 8-year-old who lives in a housing project.
- B. A 2-year-old who plays on aging playground equipment.
- C. An adolescent who works in a paint factory.
- D. A 10-year-old with Type 1 diabetes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Young children, like the 2-year-old playing on aging playground equipment, are at higher risk of lead poisoning due to their hand-to-mouth behavior and exploration of their environment. Aging playground equipment may have lead-based paint that can be ingested by the child. While children living in housing projects are also at risk due to lead-based paint in older buildings, the 2-year-old child playing on potentially lead-contaminated playground equipment is the most susceptible in this scenario. The adolescent working in a paint factory may face occupational hazards related to lead exposure, but the immediate risk from environmental sources is higher for the 2-year-old. Type 1 diabetes in a 10-year-old is not directly linked to an increased susceptibility to lead poisoning.
4. Which intervention should be prioritized by the nurse when assessing tissue perfusion post-above knee amputation (AKA)?
- A. Evaluate the closest proximal pulse.
- B. Observe color and amount of wound drainage.
- C. Observe for swelling around the stump.
- D. Assess the skin elasticity of the stump.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the closest proximal pulse when assessing tissue perfusion post-above knee amputation (AKA). Checking the closest proximal pulse provides the best indication of tissue perfusion in the extremities after an AKA procedure. Observing the color and amount of wound drainage (Choice B) is important for wound care but does not directly assess tissue perfusion. Observing for swelling around the stump (Choice C) may indicate inflammation or fluid accumulation but is not the most direct way to assess tissue perfusion. Assessing the skin elasticity of the stump (Choice D) is more related to skin integrity and wound healing rather than tissue perfusion.
5. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the medication immediately
- B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
- C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
- D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.
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