HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 mEq/L?
- A. Losartan
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Metoprolol
- D. Furosemide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia. With potassium levels already elevated at 6.2 mEq/L, withholding Spironolactone is essential to prevent further increase in potassium levels, which could result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Losartan (Choice A) is an angiotensin receptor blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels. Metoprolol (Choice C) is a beta-blocker and also does not impact potassium levels significantly. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so it would not be the medication to withhold in this case.
2. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Avoid direct sunlight while taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with meals to prevent nausea.
- D. Discontinue the medication if you experience dizziness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with a full glass of water.' It is crucial for the nurse to teach the client to take ciprofloxacin with a full glass of water to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin does not require avoiding direct sunlight. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with meals is not necessary to prevent nausea. Choice D is incorrect as dizziness is not a common reason to discontinue ciprofloxacin.
3. A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?
- A. Encourage a diet low in carbohydrates and fats.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach and kale.
- C. Increase salt intake to prevent dehydration.
- D. Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.' Thiazide diuretics can lead to potassium loss, so it is essential for clients to consume potassium-rich foods to maintain adequate levels. Choice A is incorrect because focusing solely on low carbohydrates and fats does not address the specific issue of potassium loss. Choice B is unrelated as vitamin K content is not a concern with thiazide diuretics. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake would exacerbate hypertension and not prevent dehydration.
4. After placing a stethoscope to auscultate S1 and S2 heart sounds, what should the nurse do to check for an S3 heart sound?
- A. Switch to the diaphragm of the stethoscope to hear any abnormal sounds
- B. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope at the same location
- C. Listen at a different location over the aortic area
- D. Switch to the apical area and reassess for S3 sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To assess for an S3 heart sound, the nurse should listen with the bell of the stethoscope. An S3 heart sound is often low-pitched and best heard with the bell. Choice A is incorrect because switching to the diaphragm is not ideal for detecting low-pitched sounds like an S3. Choice C is incorrect as the S3 heart sound is best heard over the apex of the heart, not the aortic area. Choice D is incorrect because moving to the apical area is appropriate, but the nurse should specifically use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for S3 sounds.
5. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instruction should the nurse provide the UAP who is working with the nurse?
- A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake
- B. Document the absence of reaction
- C. Notify the nurse if the client develops a fever
- D. Continue to measure the client's vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring vital signs throughout a transfusion is critical, as reactions can occur later in the process. The UAP should continue to check vital signs regularly to ensure that any delayed reaction is promptly detected. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice A) is not necessary at this point, as the focus should be on monitoring. Documenting the absence of a reaction (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as ongoing vital sign monitoring. Notifying the nurse if the client develops a fever (Choice C) is relevant but should not be the UAP's primary responsibility during the transfusion.
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