Nursing Elites

1. Prolonged exposure to high concentrations of supplemental oxygen over several days can cause which pathophysiological effect?

• A. Reduced cardiac output
• B. Disrupted surfactant production
• C. Hyperactivity of alveoli
• D. Increased oxygen carrying capacity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prolonged exposure to high oxygen concentrations can disrupt the production of surfactant in the lungs, leading to atelectasis and other lung complications. Surfactant is essential for maintaining lung compliance and preventing alveolar collapse. Reduced cardiac output (Choice A) is not directly associated with prolonged oxygen exposure. Hyperactivity of alveoli (Choice C) is not a recognized consequence of high oxygen levels. Increased oxygen carrying capacity (Choice D) is not a pathophysiological effect of prolonged high oxygen exposure.

2. When taking a health history, which information collected by the nurse correlates most directly to a diagnosis of chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency?

• A. Reports of leg cramping at rest
• B. Family history of heart disease
• C. Current use of beta-blockers
• D. History of intermittent claudication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Intermittent claudication, or pain in the legs while walking that is relieved by rest, is a classic symptom of peripheral arterial insufficiency. Other factors such as a family history or medication use may contribute to cardiovascular health, but claudication is the most specific indicator. Leg cramping at rest is more indicative of conditions like peripheral neuropathy or deep vein thrombosis. Family history of heart disease and current use of beta-blockers are relevant to overall cardiovascular health, but they are not as directly related to chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency as intermittent claudication.

3. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
• B. Place the client in a supine position.
• C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
• D. Review the client's recent medication history.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.

4. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin level
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

5. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.

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