Nursing Elites

1. Prolonged exposure to high concentrations of supplemental oxygen over several days can cause which pathophysiological effect?

• A. Reduced cardiac output
• B. Disrupted surfactant production
• C. Hyperactivity of alveoli
• D. Increased oxygen carrying capacity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prolonged exposure to high oxygen concentrations can disrupt the production of surfactant in the lungs, leading to atelectasis and other lung complications. Surfactant is essential for maintaining lung compliance and preventing alveolar collapse. Reduced cardiac output (Choice A) is not directly associated with prolonged oxygen exposure. Hyperactivity of alveoli (Choice C) is not a recognized consequence of high oxygen levels. Increased oxygen carrying capacity (Choice D) is not a pathophysiological effect of prolonged high oxygen exposure.

2. A client presents with a suspected infection and has a fever of 102°F. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

• A. Administer antipyretics as ordered
• B. Take a blood culture before administering antibiotics
• C. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration
• D. Monitor vital signs every hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The immediate priority for a client with a suspected infection and fever is to take a blood culture before administering antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism and ensure appropriate treatment. Administering antipyretics or encouraging fluid intake are important but should come after obtaining the blood culture to avoid interfering with test results. Monitoring vital signs, although essential, is not the immediate priority compared to identifying the infectious agent.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute.
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
• C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.
• D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a critical assessment finding in a client prescribed with digoxin, as it can indicate digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia is a known side effect of digoxin, and if left unaddressed, it can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Both choices B, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and C, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, fall within normal ranges and do not raise immediate concerns. Choice D, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, is also within normal limits and does not indicate digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should report bradycardia promptly to prevent further complications.

4. During a thyroid storm, what is the nurse's priority intervention for a client experiencing increased heart rate and tremors?

• A. Administer antithyroid medications as prescribed.
• B. Administer a beta-blocker to control the heart rate.
• C. Monitor the client's temperature closely.
• D. Prepare the client for an emergency thyroidectomy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antithyroid medications as prescribed during a thyroid storm. Antithyroid medications help control the overproduction of thyroid hormones, which is crucial in managing symptoms such as increased heart rate and tremors. These symptoms can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Administering a beta-blocker (Choice B) may help control the heart rate, but addressing the underlying cause with antithyroid medications is the priority. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice C) is important but not the priority intervention during a thyroid storm. Lastly, preparing the client for an emergency thyroidectomy (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing symptoms of a thyroid storm.

5. What safety measure should the nurse take for a client with a seizure disorder who has an IV line?

• A. Ensure that the IV site is padded and protected.
• B. Limit the client's mobility to prevent dislodging the IV.
• C. Place the IV site on the same side as the seizure activity.
• D. Ensure the client is positioned on the opposite side of the IV line.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensure the client is positioned on the opposite side of the IV line. Placing the IV line on the opposite side of any seizure activity is essential to prevent injury. It helps to ensure that the IV line is not dislodged during a seizure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. While padding and protecting the IV site is important, the priority is to position the client on the side opposite to the IV line to prevent dislodgement and injury during a seizure.

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