Nursing Elites

1. Prolonged exposure to high concentrations of supplemental oxygen over several days can cause which pathophysiological effect?

• A. Reduced cardiac output
• B. Disrupted surfactant production
• C. Hyperactivity of alveoli
• D. Increased oxygen carrying capacity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prolonged exposure to high oxygen concentrations can disrupt the production of surfactant in the lungs, leading to atelectasis and other lung complications. Surfactant is essential for maintaining lung compliance and preventing alveolar collapse. Reduced cardiac output (Choice A) is not directly associated with prolonged oxygen exposure. Hyperactivity of alveoli (Choice C) is not a recognized consequence of high oxygen levels. Increased oxygen carrying capacity (Choice D) is not a pathophysiological effect of prolonged high oxygen exposure.

2. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Supine
• C. Prone
• D. Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

• A. 3 ml.
• B. 0.4 ml.
• C. 1.2 ml.
• D. 0.9 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a dose of vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Increase the client’s warfarin dosage to prevent clot formation.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.

5. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What should the nurse teach the client about lithium toxicity?

• A. Take the medication with meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Report any symptoms of nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea.
• C. Monitor lithium levels regularly and maintain hydration.
• D. Avoid taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) while on lithium.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking lithium should avoid NSAIDs as they can increase lithium levels leading to toxicity. It is essential to monitor lithium levels regularly and maintain hydration to prevent toxicity. Reporting symptoms like nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea is important, but the key teaching point regarding lithium toxicity is to avoid NSAIDs.

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