HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving nothing by mouth (NPO) status. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
- C. Provide mouth care to keep the client comfortable.
- D. Elevate the client's head of the bed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is on NPO status, the nurse's priority intervention is to monitor the client's intake and output. This is crucial to assess for signs of dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and to ensure the client is responding appropriately to treatment. Administering antiemetic medication (choice A) may be necessary for managing nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over monitoring intake and output. Providing mouth care (choice C) and elevating the client's head of the bed (choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring intake and output to prevent complications in clients with NPO status due to acute pancreatitis.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- D. Serum sodium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach.
- B. Report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Monitor for changes in blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.
4. A healthcare provider is educating a client with DM on recognizing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the healthcare provider mention?
- A. Increased thirst
- B. Frequent urination
- C. Sweating
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct symptom to mention when educating a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) on hypoglycemia is sweating. Sweating is a common symptom of hypoglycemia as it occurs due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system in response to low blood sugar levels. Increased thirst (Choice A) and frequent urination (Choice B) are more indicative of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) rather than hypoglycemia. Weight loss (Choice D) is not a typical symptom associated with hypoglycemia.
5. The healthcare provider receives a report that a client with an indwelling urinary catheter has an output of 150 mL for the previous 6-hour shift. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement first?
- A. Check the drainage tubing for a kink
- B. Review the intake and output record
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Give the client 8 oz of water to drink
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The first intervention should be to check the drainage tubing for a kink. This step is crucial as any kinks in the tubing could obstruct urine flow, leading to a decreased output. By ensuring the tubing is free from any obstructions, the healthcare provider can address a potential mechanical issue causing the low output before considering other interventions. Reviewing the intake and output record may provide valuable information but should come after ensuring the tubing is clear. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done later if needed, but the immediate concern is to check for any obstructions. Giving the client water to drink may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, but addressing a possible kink in the tubing takes precedence.