Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving nothing by mouth (NPO) status. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
• C. Provide mouth care to keep the client comfortable.
• D. Elevate the client's head of the bed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is on NPO status, the nurse's priority intervention is to monitor the client's intake and output. This is crucial to assess for signs of dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and to ensure the client is responding appropriately to treatment. Administering antiemetic medication (choice A) may be necessary for managing nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over monitoring intake and output. Providing mouth care (choice C) and elevating the client's head of the bed (choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring intake and output to prevent complications in clients with NPO status due to acute pancreatitis.

2. A client with a history of stroke is receiving warfarin. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Check the client's blood pressure.
• B. Assess for signs of bleeding.
• C. Assess the client's neurological status.
• D. Monitor the client's intake and output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding in patients. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from gums is crucial. Checking the client's blood pressure (choice A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's neurological status (choice C) is essential in stroke patients but is not the priority related to warfarin therapy. Monitoring intake and output (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the priority when a client is on warfarin, as assessing for bleeding takes precedence.

3. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?

• A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
• B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
• C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
• D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.

4. A client with osteoarthritis is prescribed acetaminophen. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication with food to improve absorption.
• B. Avoid taking other pain medications to prevent liver damage.
• C. Take acetaminophen on an empty stomach to prevent stomach upset.
• D. Monitor liver function tests regularly to detect any liver damage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Acetaminophen can cause liver damage if taken in excessive amounts or in combination with other medications containing acetaminophen. Clients should be advised to avoid other pain medications to prevent liver toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because acetaminophen is usually taken with or without food, not specifically on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because taking acetaminophen with food can help prevent stomach upset. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring liver function tests is important for long-term acetaminophen use, the most crucial teaching is to avoid other pain medications to prevent liver damage.

5. A client presents with three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. What interpretation should the nurse provide?

• A. CAGE is a tool for general substance abuse screening.
• B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
• C. One positive response does not indicate alcohol addiction.
• D. All four responses must be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Two positive responses on the CAGE questionnaire strongly suggest alcohol dependence. Choice A is incorrect as the CAGE questionnaire specifically targets alcohol abuse. Choice C is incorrect because one positive response is not enough to indicate alcohol addiction. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol dependence can be suggested with two positive responses, not all four.

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