HESI RN TEST BANK

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

A client with chronic kidney disease is admitted with complaints of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities. What laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to report?

    A. Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL.

    B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL.

    C. Potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L.

    D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 25 mg/dL.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL suggests anemia, which commonly occurs in clients with chronic kidney disease and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this finding is crucial to address the anemic condition. Choices A, C, and D are important in the context of chronic kidney disease but do not directly relate to the symptoms of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities described in the scenario.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing increased shortness of breath and fatigue. What is the nurse's first action?

  • A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
  • B. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
  • C. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
  • D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for a client with COPD experiencing increased shortness of breath and fatigue is to check the client's oxygen saturation. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate the client's respiratory status promptly. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after assessing the oxygen saturation. Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position (Choice C) can help improve breathing but should not precede oxygen saturation assessment. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) may be needed based on the oxygen saturation results, but assessing it first is crucial.

A client has been given a prescription for tetracycline HCL (Sumycin). The nurse should emphasize the client to

  • A. Take the medication with food or milk
  • B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure
  • C. Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes
  • D. Expect a yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes.' Tetracycline can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to jaundice which may present as yellowing of the skin or eyes. This is a serious side effect that the nurse should emphasize to the client. Choice A is incorrect because tetracycline should generally be taken on an empty stomach, not with food or milk. Choice B is also incorrect as tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, but it is not directly related to yellowing skin or eyes. Choice D is incorrect because tetracycline can cause yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth, but this is usually seen in children under 8 years of age, not a common concern for adult clients.

A client is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma management. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client regarding the use of this medication?

  • A. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler
  • B. Hold your breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication
  • C. Use the inhaler during an acute asthma attack
  • D. Take the medication only when symptoms occur

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma management is to rinse the mouth after using the inhaler. This helps prevent oral thrush, a common side effect of corticosteroid inhalers. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) is not necessary for corticosteroid inhalers. Using the inhaler during an acute asthma attack (Choice C) is not the purpose of corticosteroids, which are used for long-term asthma management. Taking the medication only when symptoms occur (Choice D) is not correct as corticosteroids are typically used regularly to control asthma symptoms.

A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

  • A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
  • B. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
  • C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
  • D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.

Access More Features


HESI Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 3000 Questions and Answers
  • 30 days access only

HESI Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 3000 Questions and Answers
  • 90 days access only