HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is admitted with complaints of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities. What laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to report?
- A. Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL.
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL.
- C. Potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L.
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 25 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL suggests anemia, which commonly occurs in clients with chronic kidney disease and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this finding is crucial to address the anemic condition. Choices A, C, and D are important in the context of chronic kidney disease but do not directly relate to the symptoms of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities described in the scenario.
2. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
- B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
- C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
- D. It will indicate the need to institute antiparkinsonian drugs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: Monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is crucial because orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, increasing the risk of falls and related injuries. Therefore, regular blood pressure monitoring helps healthcare providers detect and manage this potential side effect. Incorrect Choices Rationale: - Choice B is incorrect because while antipsychotic drugs can have various side effects, causing elevated blood pressure is not a common effect associated with them. - Choice C is unrelated to blood pressure monitoring in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs. Monitoring blood pressure in this context aims to detect and manage side effects of the medication, not to assess sodium intake. - Choice D is incorrect as monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is primarily aimed at detecting orthostatic hypotension, not as an indicator for instituting antiparkinsonian drugs.
3. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?
- A. International normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.
4. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
- D. Review the client's recent medication history.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with an infected foot ulcer. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Obtain a wound culture for testing.
- B. Administer prescribed IV antibiotics.
- C. Elevate the affected foot to reduce swelling.
- D. Consult the wound care nurse for assessment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering prescribed IV antibiotics is the most crucial intervention in managing an infected foot ulcer in a client with diabetes mellitus. Antibiotics help combat the infection and prevent its spread systemically, which is vital in diabetic clients to prevent serious complications like sepsis. While obtaining a wound culture (Choice A) may provide valuable information for targeted antibiotic therapy, administering antibiotics promptly takes precedence to prevent the infection from worsening. Elevating the affected foot (Choice C) can help reduce swelling but is not as urgent as administering antibiotics. Consulting the wound care nurse (Choice D) may be beneficial for long-term wound management but does not address the immediate need to control the infection.
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