Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is admitted with complaints of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities. What laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to report?

• A. Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL.
• B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL.
• C. Potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 25 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL suggests anemia, which commonly occurs in clients with chronic kidney disease and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this finding is crucial to address the anemic condition. Choices A, C, and D are important in the context of chronic kidney disease but do not directly relate to the symptoms of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities described in the scenario.

2. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result would the nurse expect to find in this client?

• A. pH level of 7.45
• B. Serum calcium of 15 mg/dL
• C. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL
• D. Sodium level of 120 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with diabetic ketoacidosis typically present with elevated blood glucose levels, often above 300 mg/dL. This high blood glucose level, along with other symptoms, helps confirm the diagnosis of DKA. A pH level of 7.45 would be indicative of alkalosis, not the acidosis seen in DKA. A serum calcium level of 15 mg/dL is significantly elevated and is not a typical finding in DKA. A sodium level of 120 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is not a characteristic laboratory finding in DKA.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to eat foods rich in potassium
• B. Administer a potassium-sparing diuretic
• C. Administer a potassium-binding medication
• D. Hold all medications containing potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is dangerous and requires immediate treatment. Administering a potassium-binding medication will help lower potassium levels and prevent life-threatening complications.

4. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged on isoniazid and rifampin. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Complete the full course of antibiotics.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if you experience tingling in your fingers.
• C. Use a disposable mask when in contact with others.
• D. Monitor liver function tests monthly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a disposable mask when in contact with others. TB is highly contagious, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A is important but not the priority as using a mask directly impacts public health. Choice B is related to a potential side effect of isoniazid, peripheral neuropathy, but immediate healthcare provider notification is not required. Choice D is relevant due to the potential hepatotoxicity of isoniazid and rifampin, but it is not the priority instruction in this scenario.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site should the nurse select?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal muscle
• C. Vastus lateralis muscle
• D. Dorsogluteal muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free from major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury. The deltoid muscle can be used for smaller volumes of medication, primarily vaccines. The vastus lateralis muscle is commonly used in infants, toddlers, and young children. The dorsogluteal muscle site is discouraged due to its proximity to the sciatic nerve, increasing the risk of injury or nerve damage.

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