HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea. What should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
- B. Offer the client small, frequent meals.
- C. Provide the client with crackers and water.
- D. Encourage the client to eat a bland diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic as prescribed. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea, the priority action is to administer an antiemetic medication as prescribed. Antiemetics help alleviate nausea and prevent complications associated with chemotherapy, such as dehydration and malnutrition. Options B, C, and D focus on dietary interventions which can be helpful but addressing the severe nausea with antiemetic medication takes precedence to provide immediate relief and ensure the client's comfort and well-being.
2. A female client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is sedated and on a ventilator with 50% FIO2. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention?
- A. Assess the client’s lung sounds bilaterally.
- B. Diminished left lower lobe sounds.
- C. Monitor ventilator settings for changes in oxygen levels.
- D. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diminished breath sounds in a sedated client with ARDS and on a ventilator indicate collapsed alveoli, which requires immediate intervention, such as chest tube insertion, to prevent further lung damage. Assessing bilateral lung sounds (Choice A) is important but not as urgent as identifying diminished sounds in a specific location. Monitoring ventilator settings (Choice C) is essential but does not directly address the immediate need for intervention due to diminished breath sounds. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath (Choice D) may indicate other issues but are not specific to the urgency of addressing diminished breath sounds in ARDS.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection to a thin, elderly client. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?
- A. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm.
- B. Upper outer thigh.
- C. Lower abdomen.
- D. Lateral aspect of the upper arm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the upper outer thigh. In thin, elderly clients, the upper outer thigh is a recommended site for subcutaneous injections due to the presence of adequate subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass. The dorsal aspect of the upper arm may not provide enough subcutaneous tissue for proper absorption of the medication. The lower abdomen is not ideal for thin individuals as it may lead to injection into muscle rather than subcutaneous tissue. The lateral aspect of the upper arm is also not a commonly recommended site for subcutaneous injections.
4. A client is experiencing acute bronchospasm. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a nebulizer treatment of albuterol.
- B. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
- C. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.
- D. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a nebulizer treatment of albuterol. In acute bronchospasm, the priority intervention is to deliver a bronchodilator like albuterol to open the airways and improve breathing. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline (Choice B) may be necessary but not the priority in this situation. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention for bronchospasm. Positioning the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice D) can help with breathing but is not the priority over administering a bronchodilator.
5. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?
- A. Decreased liver enzymes.
- B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
- C. High bilirubin levels.
- D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.
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