a 48 year old client with chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital the nurse would anticipate that the client may be deficient in which vitamins
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A 48-year-old client with chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital. The nurse would anticipate that the client may be deficient in which vitamins?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic alcoholism commonly leads to deficiencies in B vitamins, particularly thiamine, and vitamin C. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological issues like Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, while vitamin C deficiency can lead to scurvy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because vitamin D and E deficiencies are not typically associated with chronic alcoholism.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus presents with a blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL. What is the nurse's initial action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a high blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL, the nurse's initial action should be to administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed. The priority is to bring down the elevated glucose level promptly to prevent further complications. Encouraging the client to drink fluids or providing a carbohydrate snack would not effectively address the elevated blood sugar level in this scenario. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is not appropriate as the client's blood sugar level is high, not low.

3. The nurse receives a report on an older adult client with middle stage dementia. What information suggests the nurse should do immediate follow-up rather than delegate care to the nursing assistant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A change in responsiveness, as indicated by being minimally responsive to voice and touch, suggests a potential acute issue that requires immediate nursing assessment and intervention rather than delegation. Changes in vital signs (choices A, B, D) can be important but do not always indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention compared to a change in responsiveness.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the emergency room with abdominal pain, polyuria, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first start an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention is crucial in addressing severe dehydration associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, a life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes. Administering intravenous insulin (Choice A) is important but should follow fluid resuscitation. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice C) is necessary but not as urgent as addressing the dehydration. Administering an antiemetic (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation.

5. A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed phenytoin is to maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, and missing doses can increase the risk of seizures. Option A is incorrect because antacids can interact with phenytoin and reduce its absorption. Option C is important but not the most critical teaching as compared to maintaining a consistent dosing schedule. Option D is incorrect because the timing of phenytoin administration should be consistent rather than specifically at bedtime.

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