a 48 year old client with chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital the nurse would anticipate that the client may be deficient in which vitamins
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A 48-year-old client with chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital. The nurse would anticipate that the client may be deficient in which vitamins?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic alcoholism commonly leads to deficiencies in B vitamins, particularly thiamine, and vitamin C. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological issues like Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, while vitamin C deficiency can lead to scurvy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because vitamin D and E deficiencies are not typically associated with chronic alcoholism.

2. A client has been receiving hydromorphone every six hours for four days. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hydromorphone can cause constipation, a common side effect of opioids. Therefore, it is crucial to auscultate bowel sounds to monitor for signs of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are important but not the priority in this scenario as constipation is a common issue with opioid use. Increasing the dosage of the medication (choice A) is not appropriate without assessing the client's bowel function first.

3. Which information is a priority for the RN to reinforce to an older client after intravenous pyelography?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After intravenous pyelography, it is crucial for the client to measure urine output in the next day to monitor for any potential complications, such as kidney issues. Promptly notifying the healthcare provider in case of decreased urine output is essential for timely intervention. While rest and hydration are important post-procedure, monitoring urine output takes precedence due to its direct correlation with potential complications.

4. A client receiving heparin therapy experiences a drop in platelet count. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. A drop in platelet count during heparin therapy may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious condition that increases the risk of clot formation. Immediate discontinuation of heparin is necessary to prevent further complications. Administering platelet transfusion without addressing the underlying cause can be harmful. Continuing to monitor the platelet count without taking immediate action can lead to delayed intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for assessment and initiation of alternative anticoagulation therapy to manage the client's condition effectively.

5. A client with heart failure reports nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations. What should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations in a heart failure patient is indicative of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should first obtain a list of the client's medications to verify if they are taking digoxin.

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