HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with type 1 diabetes reports blurry vision. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?
- A. Assess the client’s most recent blood glucose levels.
- B. Check the client’s hemoglobin A1C level.
- C. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypertension.
- D. Examine the client’s feet for signs of neuropathy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Blurry vision in clients with type 1 diabetes may indicate hyperglycemia, which requires prompt assessment of recent blood glucose levels to determine the cause and appropriate intervention. Checking the client’s hemoglobin A1C level (Choice B) is useful for assessing long-term glucose control, not for immediate management of blurry vision. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important in diabetes care but is not the most crucial assessment when blurry vision is reported. Examining the client’s feet for signs of neuropathy (Choice D) is important in diabetic foot care but is not the priority when dealing with blurry vision.
2. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
- D. Place the client in a lateral position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.
3. A client with congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What symptom indicates digoxin toxicity?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness and fatigue.
- B. Monitor for increased appetite and weight gain.
- C. Monitor for nausea and vomiting.
- D. Monitor for blurred vision or seeing yellow halos around objects.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision or seeing yellow halos around objects are signs of digoxin toxicity, which can be life-threatening. These symptoms indicate an overdose of digoxin, requiring immediate medical attention. Muscle weakness and fatigue (Choice A) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not indicative of digoxin toxicity either. Nausea and vomiting (Choice C) are common side effects of digoxin but are not specific signs of toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor for blurred vision or seeing yellow halos around objects.
4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with asthma. Which statement indicates the client understands how to use a rescue inhaler?
- A. I will use my rescue inhaler every morning to prevent asthma attacks.
- B. I should use my rescue inhaler when I start to experience wheezing.
- C. I will use my rescue inhaler when my peak flow meter reading is in the green zone.
- D. I will only use my rescue inhaler before going to bed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should use my rescue inhaler when I start to experience wheezing.' A rescue inhaler is used during the onset of asthma symptoms, such as wheezing, to quickly open the airways. It is not intended for routine daily use or prevention, which is the role of a maintenance inhaler. Option A is incorrect because a rescue inhaler is not used for prevention but for immediate relief during an asthma attack. Option C is incorrect because the peak flow meter reading is used to monitor asthma control, not to determine when to use a rescue inhaler. Option D is incorrect because using a rescue inhaler only before going to bed does not address the need for immediate relief when wheezing or experiencing asthma symptoms.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's oxygenation is improving?
- A. Pulse oximetry reading of 94%
- B. Heart rate increases from 80 to 90 beats per minute
- C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 20 breaths per minute
- D. Client reports increased energy levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 94% indicates adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation is the most objective way to assess the effectiveness of oxygen therapy. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the client's oxygenation status. An increase in heart rate or respiratory rate may indicate increased work of breathing or stress on the body. The client reporting increased energy levels is subjective and may not directly correlate with improved oxygenation.
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