Nursing Elites

1. A client with a prescription for DNR begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client's status, what priority action should the nurse implement?

• A. Inform the healthcare provider
• B. Determine the client's need for pain medication
• C. Begin comfort measures
• D. Ensure all life-saving equipment is removed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to determine the client's need for pain medication. Ensuring that the client is comfortable and free from pain is crucial in end-of-life care, especially for a client with a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order. This action prioritizes the client's comfort and dignity in their final moments. While informing the healthcare provider and beginning comfort measures are important aspects of care, pain management takes precedence as the immediate priority. Removing life-saving equipment is not appropriate at this stage as it goes against the client's wishes stated in the DNR order.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

• A. 3 ml.
• B. 0.4 ml.
• C. 1.2 ml.
• D. 0.9 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

3. A client with heart failure receiving furosemide develops muscle weakness. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer potassium supplements as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client’s potassium levels.
• C. Instruct the client to increase their salt intake.
• D. Discontinue the furosemide.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness in a client receiving furosemide (a diuretic) is often a sign of hypokalemia, as furosemide increases potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to identify and address any imbalances and prevent complications such as arrhythmias. Administering potassium supplements without monitoring the levels can lead to hyperkalemia, which has its own set of serious complications. Instructing the client to increase salt intake is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the underlying electrolyte imbalance. Discontinuing furosemide abruptly can worsen heart failure symptoms; therefore, monitoring potassium levels and adjusting the treatment accordingly is the most appropriate action.

4. Before a client with renal failure undergoes hemodialysis, what should the nurse assess?

• A. Check the client's potassium levels
• B. Review the client's medication list
• C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses
• D. Monitor the client's urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's potassium levels. Potassium levels are crucial to assess before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure because hyperkalemia (high potassium) is a common complication in these patients. Hemodialysis aims to remove excess potassium from the blood, making it essential to monitor potassium levels to determine the need for appropriate interventions. Reviewing the client's medication list (Choice B) is important for overall care but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concerns before hemodialysis. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice C) and monitoring urine output (Choice D) are important aspects of nursing assessment but are not as directly related to the specific preparation needed before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure.

5. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has had a stroke. Which intervention should the nurse recommend to prevent aspiration during meals?

• A. Encourage the client to take large bites of food
• B. Advise the client to eat quickly to prevent fatigue
• C. Offer the client thin liquids with meals
• D. Instruct the client to sit upright while eating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client to sit upright while eating is crucial to prevent aspiration in stroke clients. This position helps in safe swallowing and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the airway. Encouraging the client to take large bites of food (Choice A) can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Advising the client to eat quickly (Choice B) may lead to fatigue and compromise safe swallowing. Offering thin liquids (Choice C) can also increase the risk of aspiration in stroke clients, as thicker liquids are usually recommended to prevent aspiration.

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