Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder who reports taking a handful of medications, what information is most important to obtain?

• A. What drugs the client used in the suicide attempt.
• B. When the client last took medications for bipolar disorder.
• C. Whether the client has attempted suicide before.
• D. Which family member has the suicide note.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain information on what drugs the client used in the suicide attempt. This information is crucial for assessing the severity of the overdose, potential drug interactions, and determining the appropriate treatment plan. Choice B is not as urgent as identifying the drugs taken during the suicide attempt. Choice C, while important, is not as immediately critical as knowing the specific medications involved. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate medical needs of the client.

2. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?

• A. The client will walk 30 minutes three times a week
• B. The client will demonstrate understanding of proper shoe fit
• C. The client will perform foot care daily
• D. The client's blood pressure readings will be less than 160/90 mmHg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Controlling blood pressure is critical in managing peripheral vascular disease, as elevated pressure can exacerbate vascular damage and complications. While foot care, shoe fit, and exercise are important, lowering blood pressure is a primary goal. Proper blood pressure management helps in preventing further damage to the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral vascular disease, making it the most crucial outcome to include in the plan of care for this client.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse teach the client to monitor for?

• A. Monitor for a persistent cough.
• B. Monitor for bradycardia and dizziness.
• C. Report any signs of swelling or difficulty breathing.
• D. Monitor for headache and blurred vision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with a common side effect of a persistent dry cough. This cough can be bothersome to the client and should be reported to their healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bradycardia, dizziness, swelling, difficulty breathing, headache, and blurred vision are not typically associated with lisinopril use.

4. A client has a nasogastric tube after colon surgery. Which one of these tasks can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. To observe the type and amount of nasogastric tube drainage
• B. Monitor the client for nausea or other complications
• C. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with the ordered irrigation solution
• D. Perform nostril and mouth care

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Performing nostril and mouth care is a non-invasive task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Observing the type and amount of nasogastric tube drainage requires assessment skills and understanding of potential complications, making it more appropriate for a licensed healthcare professional. Monitoring the client for nausea or other complications involves interpreting client responses and identifying adverse reactions, which also requires a licensed healthcare professional. Irrigating the nasogastric tube with the ordered solution involves a procedure that can impact the client's condition and should be performed by a licensed healthcare professional to prevent complications.

5. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation of 96%.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 89%.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Decreased heart rate of 70 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates hypoxemia, which is below the normal range (usually 95-100%). This finding requires immediate intervention as it signifies inadequate oxygenation. Options A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Option A indicates a good oxygen saturation level, option C denotes a normal respiratory rate, and option D suggests a normal heart rate. Therefore, these options do not require immediate intervention compared to the critically low oxygen saturation level of 89% in option B.

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