a client with lupus erythematosus is prescribed prednisone what teaching should the nurse include
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with lupus erythematosus is prescribed prednisone. What teaching should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with lupus erythematosus prescribed prednisone is to avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection. Prednisone suppresses the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset but is not the priority teaching. Taking prednisone in the morning may help reduce insomnia, but infection prevention is more critical. While prednisone can lead to osteoporosis, advising extra calcium supplements is not the most immediate concern when starting the medication.

2. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving nothing by mouth (NPO) status. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is on NPO status, the nurse's priority intervention is to monitor the client's intake and output. This is crucial to assess for signs of dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and to ensure the client is responding appropriately to treatment. Administering antiemetic medication (choice A) may be necessary for managing nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over monitoring intake and output. Providing mouth care (choice C) and elevating the client's head of the bed (choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring intake and output to prevent complications in clients with NPO status due to acute pancreatitis.

3. When a client is suspected of having a stroke, what is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a neurological assessment. When a stroke is suspected, the priority action is to assess the client neurologically to determine the extent of brain injury and identify any immediate risks, such as impaired airway, speech deficits, or loss of motor function. This assessment helps in early recognition of signs that are essential for timely intervention and guides further treatment, such as administering tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), if appropriate. Positioning the client in a supine position or checking the blood glucose level can be important but not the priority when a stroke is suspected.

4. The nurse is feeding an older adult who was admitted with aspiration pneumonia. The client is weak and begins coughing while attempting to drink through a straw. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an older adult with aspiration pneumonia coughs while attempting to drink, it may indicate aspiration. Aspiration can lead to serious complications. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse in this situation is to stop feeding immediately and assess the client for signs of aspiration. Encouraging the client to drink more slowly (Choice A) may not address the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed further (Choice C) is generally beneficial to prevent aspiration but is not the priority when immediate assessment is needed. Teaching coughing and deep breathing exercises (Choice D) is not appropriate when the client is actively coughing during feeding and requires immediate assessment for potential aspiration.

5. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

Similar Questions

The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?
Which meal option should the nurse recommend for a client with renal disease who is following a low-protein diet?
A client is admitted to isolation with active tuberculosis. What infection control measures should the nurse implement?
A client is newly prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?
Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses