Nursing Elites

1. The nurse completes an assessment of a client who is experiencing intimate partner violence (IPV). Which finding of the injuries should the nurse include in the documentation?

• A. The client’s significant other’s statement.
• B. Photographs.
• C. General description.
• D. A summary of the client’s feelings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of intimate partner violence (IPV), documenting injuries is essential for legal and medical purposes. Photographs provide concrete and objective evidence of the injuries, leaving no room for interpretation or doubt. This visual documentation can be crucial in legal proceedings and serve as a critical component in ensuring the safety and well-being of the client. The significant other's statement (Choice A) may not accurately reflect the client's injuries and could be biased. A general description (Choice C) lacks the specificity and objectivity that photographs offer. Summarizing the client's feelings (Choice D) is important for emotional support but does not provide the concrete evidence needed in documenting IPV cases.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which symptom should the healthcare professional expect to find?

• A. Persistent thoughts about the trauma.
• B. Increased energy and enthusiasm.
• C. Decreased need for sleep.
• D. Increased appetite and weight gain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Persistent thoughts about the trauma. In post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), individuals often experience persistent intrusive thoughts about the traumatic event, which can be distressing and disruptive. This symptom is a hallmark feature of PTSD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, enthusiasm, decreased need for sleep, increased appetite, and weight gain are not typical symptoms of PTSD. Instead, individuals with PTSD may commonly experience symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, hypervigilance, avoidance of triggers related to the trauma, and negative changes in mood and cognition.

3. A client is being educated by a nurse about strategies for a safety plan for intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (Select all that apply)

• A. Have a bag ready that contains extra clothes for self and children.
• B. Establish a code with family and friends to signal violence.
• C. Purchase a gun for protection.
• D. Attend a self-defense course focused on self-protection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct strategies for a safety plan for a victim of intimate partner violence include having a bag ready with essentials for self and children and establishing a code with family and friends to signal danger. These strategies can help the client prepare for emergencies and seek help discreetly. Purchasing a gun (Choice C) is not a safe or recommended strategy as it can escalate violence and pose more significant risks. Additionally, taking a self-defense course focused on self-protection (Choice D) is important for self-defense, but it should not involve retaliatory actions against the abuser with the intent to cause harm.

4. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client’s plan of care should include what priority problem?

• A. Acute confusion.
• B. Ineffective community coping.
• C. Disturbed sensory perception.
• D. Self-care deficit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acute confusion is the priority problem because it directly impacts the client's safety and functioning. In this scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, which can pose immediate risks to her well-being. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit are not as urgent in this situation. Ineffective community coping focuses on the client's ability to manage stress related to the community, disturbed sensory perception pertains to alterations in sensory input, and self-care deficit involves the inability to perform activities of daily living independently. While these issues may also need addressing, acute confusion takes precedence due to the immediate safety concerns it presents.

5. A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Pan-seared catfish.
• B. Pepperoni pizza.
• C. Deep-fried shrimp.
• D. Beef strips with gravy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.

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