Nursing Elites

1. The nurse completes an assessment of a client who is experiencing intimate partner violence (IPV). Which finding of the injuries should the nurse include in the documentation?

• A. The client’s significant other’s statement.
• B. Photographs.
• C. General description.
• D. A summary of the client’s feelings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of intimate partner violence (IPV), documenting injuries is essential for legal and medical purposes. Photographs provide concrete and objective evidence of the injuries, leaving no room for interpretation or doubt. This visual documentation can be crucial in legal proceedings and serve as a critical component in ensuring the safety and well-being of the client. The significant other's statement (Choice A) may not accurately reflect the client's injuries and could be biased. A general description (Choice C) lacks the specificity and objectivity that photographs offer. Summarizing the client's feelings (Choice D) is important for emotional support but does not provide the concrete evidence needed in documenting IPV cases.

2. A client on the mental health unit is becoming more agitated, shouting at the staff, and pacing in the hallway. When a PRN medication is offered, the client refuses the medication and defiantly sits on the floor in the middle of the unit hallway. What nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Transport the client to the seclusion room.
• B. Quietly approach the client with additional staff members.
• C. Take other clients in the area to the client lounge.
• D. Administer medication to chemically restrain the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In situations where a client is agitated and refusing medication, a non-confrontational approach with additional staff can help de-escalate the situation and address the client's behavior safely. Transporting the client to the seclusion room (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention unless the client poses an immediate risk of harm to themselves or others. Taking other clients to the client lounge (Choice C) does not directly address the agitated client's behavior. Administering medication to chemically restrain the client (Choice D) should only be considered after other de-escalation attempts have been made and if there is a significant safety concern.

3. What action is most important for the RN to implement within the first 24 hours after treatment is initiated for a homeless client who reports feeling sad and depressed and has only had 4 hours of sleep in the past 2 days?

• A. Allow the client to rest and sleep.
• B. Ensure the client attends groups addressing coping skills for dealing with depression.
• C. Begin planning for the client’s discharge.
• D. Encourage verbalization of feelings.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A: Addressing the client’s immediate need for rest and sleep is crucial for stabilization and recovery. It is essential to prioritize the client's physical well-being and provide the opportunity for adequate rest. B: Group therapy and coping skills are important but secondary to ensuring immediate needs are met. C: Discharge planning is important but should follow stabilization of the client’s immediate needs. D: Encouraging verbalization of feelings is supportive but not as urgent as addressing basic needs like rest.

4. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior around age 14, which caused him to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of early and slow onset of schizophrenia, the prognosis is generally less positive. This means that the outlook for individuals like Gilbert, who showed signs of schizophrenia at a young age, is often poorer. Option A is incorrect because while medication can help manage symptoms, the overall prognosis is still less favorable. Option B is incorrect since relapse stage typically refers to a period of worsening symptoms after initial improvement. Option C is incorrect because while psychosocial interventions can be beneficial, the underlying early and slow onset of schizophrenia indicates a less positive outcome.

5. The nurse is using the CAGE questionnaire as a screening tool for a client who is seeking help because his wife said he had a drinking problem. What information should the nurse explore in-depth with the client based on this screening tool?

• A. Consumption, liver enzymes, gastrointestinal complaints, and bleeding.
• B. Minimizing drinking, frequently missing family events, guilt about drinking, and amount of daily intake.
• C. Cancer screening results, anger, gastritis, daily alcohol intake.
• D. Efforts to cut down, annoyance with questions, guilt, drinking as an “Eye-opener.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The CAGE questionnaire is a screening tool for alcohol use disorder. Each letter in CAGE represents a key question: Cutting down, Annoyance by criticisms, Guilty feelings, and Eye-openers. These questions help assess problematic drinking behaviors and can provide valuable insights into the client's alcohol consumption habits. Choices A, B, and C do not directly align with the specific areas of inquiry covered by the CAGE questionnaire, making them incorrect. Therefore, the nurse should focus on exploring the client's efforts to cut down, annoyance with questions, feelings of guilt, and the use of alcohol as an “Eye-opener” based on this screening tool.

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