Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client with anemia. Which action is most important to prevent a transfusion reaction?

• A. Check the client's vital signs before starting the transfusion.
• B. Use a blood filter when administering the transfusion.
• C. Verify the blood type and Rh factor with another healthcare professional.
• D. Administer antihistamines before starting the transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verifying the blood type and Rh factor with another healthcare professional is the most crucial action to prevent a transfusion reaction. Ensuring compatibility between the donor blood and the recipient is essential in preventing adverse reactions such as hemolytic transfusion reactions. Checking vital signs is important for monitoring the client during the transfusion process but does not directly prevent a transfusion reaction. Using a blood filter can help remove clots and debris but does not address the risk of a reaction due to blood type incompatibility. Administering antihistamines before the transfusion is not a standard practice to prevent transfusion reactions related to blood type incompatibility.

2. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself daily and report a weight gain of more than 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• B. I will take my diuretic medication in the morning.
• C. I will call my healthcare provider if I experience increased shortness of breath.
• D. I will drink at least 3 liters of fluid each day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking at least 3 liters of fluid each day may be contraindicated for a client with CHF due to the risk of fluid overload. This can exacerbate heart failure symptoms and lead to complications. Options A, B, and C are all appropriate statements that demonstrate understanding of managing CHF and seeking appropriate medical attention when needed.

3. In a community clinic where a recent case of tuberculosis (TB) has been diagnosed, which client who attended the clinic is at the highest risk for presenting with TB?

• A. a young adult who works as a daycare worker
• B. an adult who works in a corporate office
• C. an adolescent who attends the community high school
• D. an adult with a history of alcoholism and homelessness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals who are homeless and have a history of alcoholism are at the highest risk for presenting with TB in this scenario. Homeless individuals often live in crowded conditions with poor ventilation, increasing the likelihood of TB transmission. Additionally, alcoholism can weaken the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to developing TB. The other options, such as a daycare worker, an office worker, or a high school student, do not inherently carry the same level of risk factors for TB transmission as being homeless with a history of alcoholism.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.5 g/dL.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL.
• D. Serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL. An elevated serum ammonia level indicates hepatic dysfunction and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges or slightly abnormal values for clients with cirrhosis and do not pose an immediate threat. Serum albumin levels may indicate malnutrition, prothrombin time may reflect liver synthetic function, and hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors but do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

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