HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. Progressive kyphoscoliosis leading to respiratory distress is evident in a client with muscular dystrophy. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Extremity muscle weakness.
- B. Bilateral eyelid drooping.
- C. Inability to swallow pills.
- D. Evidence of hypoventilation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Evidence of hypoventilation. In a client with muscular dystrophy and progressive kyphoscoliosis, hypoventilation indicates respiratory muscle weakness and can lead to life-threatening respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while extremity muscle weakness, bilateral eyelid drooping, and inability to swallow pills are concerning symptoms in muscular dystrophy, evidence of hypoventilation poses a more immediate threat to the client's respiratory status.
2. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered the blood pressure
- B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness
- C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
- D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When medications with a similar action are administered, an additive effect occurs that is the sum of the effects of each medication. In this case, several medications that all lower blood pressure, when administered together, resulted in hypotension.
3. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse's station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?
- A. Ineffective coping related to denial.
- B. Risk for impaired cardiac function.
- C. Noncompliance related to lack of knowledge.
- D. Anxiety related to hospitalization.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective coping related to denial. The client's desire to leave the hospital shortly after a myocardial infarction despite the severity of the condition indicates denial and ineffective coping. This behavior could lead to complications as the client may not adequately address his health needs. Choice B, Risk for impaired cardiac function, is not the most appropriate nursing problem in this scenario as the client's behavior is more indicative of psychological coping issues rather than a direct physiological risk at this moment. Choice C, Noncompliance related to lack of knowledge, does not align with the client's behavior of wanting to leave the hospital. Choice D, Anxiety related to hospitalization, may not be the best option as the client's behavior is more suggestive of denial rather than anxiety about being hospitalized.
4. The nurse is assessing the thorax and lungs of a client who is experiencing respiratory difficulty. Which finding is most indicative of respiratory distress?
- A. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
- B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
- C. Downward movement of diaphragm with inspiration
- D. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle suggest that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe, which is a clear sign of respiratory distress. This finding indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, typically seen in conditions like asthma, COPD, or respiratory failure. Choices B, C, and D are not the most indicative of respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min falls within the normal range. Downward movement of the diaphragm with inspiration is a normal finding indicating effective diaphragmatic breathing. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95% is within the normal range and does not necessarily indicate respiratory distress.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
- C. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dl
- D. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dl is the most concerning laboratory value in a client with chronic kidney disease scheduled for a renal biopsy. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which is critical information before performing a renal biopsy. Option A (Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L) may be concerning for hyperkalemia but is not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure. Option B (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) is within normal limits, suggesting relatively normal kidney function. Option D (White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3) is within the normal range and not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure or CKD management.
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