an elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea dysuria and urgency with incontinence which action should the nurse implement
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: This elderly client is presenting symptoms consistent with a urinary tract infection (UTI), such as confusion, nausea, dysuria, urgency, and incontinence. The best course of action for the nurse is to obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen. This specimen will help identify the causative agent of the UTI, allowing for targeted treatment with an appropriate anti-infective agent. Auscultating for renal bruits (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the client's symptoms point towards a UTI rather than a renal issue. Using a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones (Choice C) is not relevant in the context of UTI symptoms. Beginning to strain the client's urine (Choice D) would not address the need to identify the causative agent for targeted treatment.

2. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking over-the-counter medications. Which medication provides the greatest threat to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with CKD, magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels due to decreased excretion by the kidneys. Therefore, it poses the greatest threat to this client population. Choice B, birth control pills, is not typically contraindicated in CKD. Choice C, cough syrup containing codeine, may require dose adjustments but is not the greatest threat. Choice D, cold medication containing alcohol, is a concern mainly in liver disease, not CKD.

3. Which class of drugs is the only source of a cure for septic shock?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anti-infectives. Anti-infective agents, such as antibiotics, are essential in treating septic shock as they can eliminate bacteria and halt the progression of the condition by stopping the production of endotoxins. Antihypertensives (Choice A) are used to lower blood pressure, antihistamines (Choice C) are used to treat allergic reactions, and anticholesteremics (Choice D) are used to lower cholesterol levels. However, none of these drug classes directly address the bacterial infection that underlies septic shock.

4. A client who is receiving long-term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Option D). Blurred vision in a client on long-term steroid therapy can be a sign of serious conditions like cataracts or glaucoma, which need urgent medical evaluation and management. Instructing the client to use artificial tears (Option A) may help with dry eyes but does not address the underlying cause of blurred vision. Administering an ophthalmic antibiotic (Option B) is not indicated unless there is a specific infection present. Referring the client to an optometrist for an eye exam (Option C) may delay necessary medical intervention by the healthcare provider, who should be involved promptly in this situation.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with CKD as it indicates severe hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Serum sodium levels within the normal range (135 mEq/L) are not immediately concerning. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL may indicate impaired kidney function but does not require immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL is within normal limits and does not directly correlate with hyperkalemia in this scenario.

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