HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
- B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output.
- D. Obtain a blood glucose level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl in a client who is unresponsive due to hyperglycemia. This intervention is crucial to rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels and address the emergency situation. Administering insulin (Choice B) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's condition. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice D) are important assessments but are secondary to the immediate need to address the high blood glucose levels causing the client's unresponsiveness.
2. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab test is important for the nurse to review before contacting the healthcare provider?
- A. Capillary glucose
- B. Urine specific gravity
- C. Serum calcium
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia. Serum calcium levels should be reviewed as they play a crucial role in diagnosing and managing hypocalcemia. Option A, capillary glucose, is not relevant to the symptoms described. Option B, urine specific gravity, is not typically used to assess numbness and tingling. Option D, white blood cell count, is unrelated to the symptoms presented by the client.
3. An adolescent's mother calls the clinic because the teen is having recurrent vomiting and has become combative in the last 2 days. The mother states that the teen takes vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Advise the mother to withhold all medications by mouth.
- B. Instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room.
- C. Recommend that the teen withhold food and fluids for 2 hours.
- D. Suggest that the adolescent breathe slowly and deeply.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room. The symptoms described, including recurrent vomiting and becoming combative after taking vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin, indicate a potential overdose or a serious condition. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation in the emergency room is crucial. Advising to withhold all medications by mouth (Choice A) may delay necessary treatment. Recommending to withhold food and fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate in this urgent situation. Suggesting deep breathing (Choice D) does not address the seriousness of the symptoms and the need for immediate medical attention.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Serum creatinine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium closely is essential. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to increased red blood cell production, which may cause potassium levels to rise, potentially resulting in hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly impacted by erythropoietin therapy in the context of CKD.
5. When organizing home visits for the day, which older client should the home health nurse plan to visit first?
- A. A woman who takes naproxen (Naprosyn) and reports a recent onset of dark, tarry stools.
- B. A man who receives weekly injections of epoetin (Procrit) for a low serum iron level.
- C. A man with emphysema who smokes and is complaining of white patches in his mouth.
- D. A frail woman with heart failure who reported a 2-pound weight gain in the last week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dark, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Visiting this client first is crucial for prompt assessment and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent attention compared to the potential emergency indicated by dark, tarry stools.
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