HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
- B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output.
- D. Obtain a blood glucose level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl in a client who is unresponsive due to hyperglycemia. This intervention is crucial to rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels and address the emergency situation. Administering insulin (Choice B) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's condition. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice D) are important assessments but are secondary to the immediate need to address the high blood glucose levels causing the client's unresponsiveness.
2. For the past 24 hours, an antidiarrheal agent, diphenoxylate, has been administered to a bedridden, older client with infectious gastroenteritis. Which finding requires the nurse to take further action?
- A. Tented skin turgor
- B. Decreased bowel sounds
- C. Persistent diarrhea
- D. Dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tented skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, which can be exacerbated by the use of antidiarrheals in clients with gastroenteritis. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less resilient when pinched. Therefore, the nurse should take immediate action upon noticing tented skin turgor to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased bowel sounds, persistent diarrhea, and dehydration are expected findings in a client with gastroenteritis who has been administered an antidiarrheal agent.
3. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
- B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
- C. Begin external chest compressions.
- D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.
4. In preparing assignments for the shift, which client is best for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN)?
- A. An older client who fell yesterday and is now complaining of diplopia.
- B. An adult newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and high cholesterol.
- C. A client with pancreatic cancer who is experiencing intractable pain.
- D. An older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best client for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN) is an older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia. This client is stable and suitable for care by a PN under supervision. Choices A, B, and C present clients with more complex and acute conditions that would require a higher level of nursing expertise and intervention.
5. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Ensure that the UAP has positioned the pillows effectively to protect the client.
- B. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows.
- C. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task.
- D. Ask the UAP to use some of the pillows to prop the client in a side-lying position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the UAP to pad the side rails with soft blankets instead of pillows. Placing pillows along the side rails could lead to suffocation during a seizure and would need to be removed promptly. Instructing the UAP to use soft blankets is safer as they can help prevent injury without posing a risk of suffocation. Ensuring effective placement of the pillows (Choice A) is not appropriate as pillows should not be used in this situation. Assuming responsibility for placing the pillows (Choice C) or propping the client in a side-lying position with pillows (Choice D) are both unsafe actions and could potentially harm the client.
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