a client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mgdl and is unresponsive which intervention should the nurs
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl in a client who is unresponsive due to hyperglycemia. This intervention is crucial to rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels and address the emergency situation. Administering insulin (Choice B) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's condition. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice D) are important assessments but are secondary to the immediate need to address the high blood glucose levels causing the client's unresponsiveness.

2. A nurse is teaching a client with type 2 diabetes about the importance of foot care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Moisturizing between the toes can create a moist environment that fosters fungal infections. Checking the feet daily for cuts or blisters (choice A) is correct in diabetes management to prevent complications. Wearing comfortable shoes that fit well (choice C) and avoiding walking barefoot (choice D) are also essential in preventing foot ulcers and injuries in diabetic patients.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning signs of hepatic encephalopathy in a client with cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious complication of liver disease that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema may be present due to fluid accumulation, increased abdominal girth can indicate ascites which is common in cirrhosis, and yellowing of the skin is a typical manifestation of jaundice in liver dysfunction, all of which are important but not as immediately concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy.

4. A client with a history of angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sublingual nitroglycerin should not be taken with water, as it needs to dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Option B is correct as the client should take nitroglycerin as soon as they feel chest pain. Option C is correct as up to three doses can be taken if needed. Option D is correct as the client should seek emergency help if chest pain does not improve after the first dose.

5. The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client's bowel sounds. Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that can slow peristalsis and commonly cause constipation. By assessing the client's bowel sounds, the nurse can monitor for any signs of decreased bowel motility or potential constipation. Observing for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to hydromorphone administration. Measuring capillary glucose levels (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Counting the apical and radial pulses simultaneously (Choice D) is not specifically indicated in this scenario involving hydromorphone administration.

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