Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output.
• D. Obtain a blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl in a client who is unresponsive due to hyperglycemia. This intervention is crucial to rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels and address the emergency situation. Administering insulin (Choice B) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's condition. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice D) are important assessments but are secondary to the immediate need to address the high blood glucose levels causing the client's unresponsiveness.

2. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. What instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?

• A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods
• B. Report increased bruising or bleeding
• C. Stop medication if a cough develops
• D. Limit intake of leafy green vegetables

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to thrombocytopenia, a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bruising and bleeding. Instructing the client to report any signs of increased bruising or bleeding is crucial for monitoring and managing this potential side effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A - Increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to the side effects of enalapril. C - Developing a cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors, but it does not warrant stopping the medication unless advised by a healthcare provider. D - Limiting intake of leafy green vegetables is not necessary with enalapril unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider for individual reasons.

3. Which needle should the nurse use to administer intravenous fluids (IV) via a client's implanted port?

• A. The one with the clamp and no needle
• B. A butterfly needle
• C. A non-coring (Huber) needle
• D. A standard hypodermic needle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct needle to use for administering intravenous fluids via an implanted port is a non-coring (Huber) needle. This type of needle is specifically designed to access implanted ports without coring the septum, which helps prevent damage. Choice A, the one with the clamp and no needle, is incorrect as it does not describe a needle suitable for accessing an implanted port. Choice B, a butterfly needle, is not typically used for accessing implanted ports. Choice D, a standard hypodermic needle, is not ideal for accessing ports as it can damage the septum.

4. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/7.50 mg. His vital signs are elevated from the previous hour: temperature 97.8 F, heart rate 102 beats per minute, respiration 20 breaths per minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left leg is larger than the right. Preoperatively, clopidogrel was prescribed for a history of previous peripheral stents. Another nurse is holding manual pressure on the femoral arterial access site which may be leaking into the abdomen. What data is needed to make this report complete?

• A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
• B. The surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
• C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
• D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immediate evaluation by the surgeon is necessary due to the possibility of an internal hemorrhage, which is a life-threatening condition. Choice A is incorrect as lung status and oxygen saturation are not the priority in this situation. Choice C is not relevant to the current urgent issue. Choice D, while providing additional history, is not pertinent to the immediate concern of a potential internal hemorrhage post angioplasty and stent placement.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.0
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

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