Nursing Elites

1. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should give?

• A. Take the medication with aspirin to improve effectiveness.
• B. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables to support the medication.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium to reduce bleeding risk.
• D. Avoid alcohol and over-the-counter medications without consulting the provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking warfarin should avoid alcohol and over-the-counter medications without consulting their healthcare provider, as these can interact with warfarin and increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin, in particular, can exacerbate this risk. Choice A is incorrect because taking warfarin with aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as while green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K which can interact with warfarin, it is more important to maintain a consistent intake rather than increase it. Choice C is incorrect because foods high in potassium do not directly impact the bleeding risk associated with warfarin.

2. A scrub nurse preparing for the first surgery of the day asks if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate. What should the circulating nurse advise?

• A. Proceed with surgery preparation
• B. Extend scrub time to 5 minutes
• C. Use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer
• D. Scrub time depends on the type of surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The circulating nurse should advise the scrub nurse to extend the hand scrub to 5 minutes for thorough preparation, especially for the first surgery of the day. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the need for a longer scrub time. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol-based hand sanitizer is not a substitute for a thorough surgical hand scrub. Choice D is incorrect as while scrub time may vary based on the surgery, for the first surgery of the day, a longer scrub time is recommended as a standard practice.

3. A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?

• A. Anticholinergics
• B. Beta blockers
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.

4. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

5. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

• A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
• B. No bowel movement since surgery.
• C. No appetite for breakfast.
• D. A positive Chvostek's sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

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