Nursing Elites

1. After hemodialysis, a client with a history of chronic renal failure has just returned to the unit. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to make?

• A. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
• B. Assess the client's blood pressure.
• C. Monitor the client's weight.
• D. Check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial assessment for the nurse to make after hemodialysis in a client with chronic renal failure is to check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill (D). This assessment is essential to ensure the patency of the fistula and adequate blood flow. Auscultating lung sounds (A), assessing blood pressure (B), and monitoring weight (C) are important assessments but are secondary to evaluating the fistula. Checking the fistula is vital as it directly impacts the effectiveness of the client's dialysis treatment and the patency of the vascular access, ensuring successful dialysis sessions.

2. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a 65-year-old client who attends an adult daycare program, is wheelchair-mobile, and has redness in the sacral area?

• A. Take a vitamin supplement tablet once a day.
• B. Change positions in the chair at least every hour.
• C. Increase daily intake of water or other oral fluids.
• D. Purchase a newer model wheelchair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with redness in the sacral area, the most critical instruction is to change positions in the chair at least every hour. This is crucial to prevent pressure ulcers, which can develop due to prolonged pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. Regular position changes help relieve pressure on vulnerable areas, promoting circulation and reducing the risk of skin breakdown and pressure ulcer formation.

3. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

4. Mr. Landon is scheduled to undergo a tracheostomy. Which nursing action is essential during tracheal suctioning?

• A. Using a water-soluble lubricant.
• B. Administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning.
• C. Ensuring that the suction catheter is open during insertion.
• D. Assisting the client to assume a semi-Fowler's position during suctioning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning is crucial to prevent hypoxia, which can occur during tracheal suctioning. Hypoxia can lead to serious complications, making the provision of oxygen essential in maintaining adequate oxygenation levels for the patient undergoing tracheal suctioning. Choice A is incorrect because using a water-soluble lubricant is not directly related to the essential nursing action during tracheal suctioning. Choice C is incorrect as ensuring that the suction catheter is open during insertion is a basic requirement and not the essential action for oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect because assisting the client to assume a semi-Fowler's position is beneficial for comfort and airway alignment but is not as crucial as administering oxygen to prevent hypoxia.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the healthcare professional include in this procedure?

• A. Dilute each of the medications with sterile water prior to administration.
• B. Mix the medications in one syringe before opening the feeding tube.
• C. Administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications.
• D. Withdraw any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To maintain patency and ensure proper medication delivery, water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications. This helps prevent clogging of the tube and ensures that both medications are delivered effectively without interference from remnants of the previous medication. Diluting the medications with sterile water before administration (choice A) is unnecessary and may alter the medication concentration. Mixing the medications in one syringe (choice B) could lead to interactions or chemical reactions between the medications. Withdrawing fluid from the tube before instilling each medication (choice D) is not required and may increase the risk of tube displacement or misplacement.

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