Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Dependent edema.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Nocturia.
• D. Orthopnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Orthopnea (D) is most consistent with left-sided heart failure. It is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up or standing. Dependent edema (A), ascites (B), and nocturia (C) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema refers to swelling due to fluid accumulation, ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and nocturia is the excessive need to urinate during the night, all of which are more indicative of right-sided heart failure.

2. During the admission assessment of a terminally ill male client, he states that he is an agnostic. What is the best nursing action in response to this statement?

• A. Provide information about the hours and location of the chapel
• B. Document the statement in the client’s spiritual assessment
• C. Invite the client to a healing service for people of all religions
• D. Offer to contact a spiritual advisor of the client’s choice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Documenting the client's statement in the spiritual assessment is the best nursing action in response to his disclosure of being an agnostic. This respects the client's beliefs and preferences, ensuring that care is tailored to his individual needs. It also demonstrates a commitment to providing holistic and patient-centered care. Providing information about the chapel's hours and location (choice A) may not align with the client's beliefs as an agnostic. Inviting the client to a healing service (choice C) assumes the client's interest in such activities, which may not be the case. Offering to contact a spiritual advisor (choice D) may not be necessary if the client did not express a desire for it.

3. When caring for an older incontinent client at risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for an older incontinent client at risk for infection is to maintain standard precautions. Standard precautions, which include proper handwashing, are essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission in vulnerable clients. Initiating contact isolation measures may not be necessary for all clients, and inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided unless medically necessary to prevent additional risks of infection. Instructing the client in the use of adult diapers is not an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection.

4. The healthcare provider is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the healthcare provider use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to cleanse a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method is to irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline. Sterile normal saline is the preferred solution for wound cleaning as it is gentle and does not damage healthy tissues. It helps in removing debris and maintaining a moist environment conducive to healing. Povidone-iodine solution and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on tissues and delay wound healing. Removing eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing is a mechanical debridement method and should not be done without proper assessment and healthcare provider's order.

5. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump?

• A. 13 ml/hour.
• B. 63 ml/hour.
• C. 80 ml/hour.
• D. 125 ml/hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct calculation involves dividing the total volume by the total time. In this case, 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour. The dose of KCl is not used in the calculation as the focus is on the rate of infusion over the specified time period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (80 ml/hour) and Choice D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect calculations and do not match the correct rate of infusion required.

Similar Questions