HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Dependent edema.
- B. Ascites.
- C. Nocturia.
- D. Orthopnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Orthopnea (D) is most consistent with left-sided heart failure. It is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up or standing. Dependent edema (A), ascites (B), and nocturia (C) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema refers to swelling due to fluid accumulation, ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and nocturia is the excessive need to urinate during the night, all of which are more indicative of right-sided heart failure.
2. During the suctioning of a tracheostomy tube, if the catheter appears to attach to the tracheal walls and creates a pulling sensation, what is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Release the suction by opening the vent.
- B. Continue suctioning to remove obstruction.
- C. Increase the pressure.
- D. Suction deeper.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When the catheter of the suctioning device attaches to the tracheal walls, causing a pulling sensation, the nurse should release the suction by opening the vent. This action will alleviate the pulling sensation and prevent trauma to the delicate tracheal walls. Continuing suctioning or applying more pressure can lead to tissue damage and should be avoided. Suctioning deeper can increase the risk of injuring the patient's airway.
3. When culturing a wound, the nurse should obtain the sample from which part of the wound?
- A. The outer edges of the wound.
- B. All necrotic sections of the wound.
- C. Areas containing purulent or pooled exudates.
- D. Any particularly painful area of the wound.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To collect a wound culture, the nurse should first clean the wound to remove skin flora and then insert a sterile swab from a culturette tube into the wound secretions.
4. A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following?
- A. Gallbladder disease
- B. Liver disease
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Skeletal muscle injury
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated AST level following chest pain and shortness of breath is suggestive of myocardial infarction. AST is released from damaged heart muscle cells during a heart attack, indicating cardiac involvement. This enzyme is not specific to liver disease, gallbladder disease, or skeletal muscle injury in this clinical context.
5. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. What respiratory rate should the nurse document?
- A. 14
- B. 16
- C. 17
- D. 28
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should document a respiratory rate of 16. The second count of eight respirations in a 30-second interval is the most accurate as it was not interrupted by the client coughing. Therefore, this rate reflects the client's typical respiratory pattern and should be documented. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider the interruption caused by the client coughing during the first count, which could have affected the accuracy of the result. The second count of eight respirations provides a more reliable indication of the client's respiratory rate.
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