a client is admitted with a diagnosis of left sided heart failure which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Orthopnea (D) is most consistent with left-sided heart failure. It is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up or standing. Dependent edema (A), ascites (B), and nocturia (C) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema refers to swelling due to fluid accumulation, ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and nocturia is the excessive need to urinate during the night, all of which are more indicative of right-sided heart failure.

2. At 0100 on a male client’s second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client has expressed a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating that he is managing his inability to sleep. In this situation, it is best for the nurse to respect the client's autonomy and leave the room, providing privacy and an opportunity for the client to relax and hopefully fall asleep. Closing the door can also help create a quiet environment conducive to rest.

3. A client with a diagnosis of renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (C) is elevated and concerning in a client with renal failure receiving hemodialysis, as it can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring blood pressure (A), weight gain (B), and weight loss (D) are essential in clients on hemodialysis, but an elevated potassium level poses an immediate risk that requires prompt intervention.

4. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.

5. The healthcare professional is monitoring a client receiving IV potassium chloride. Which assessment finding should prompt the healthcare professional to immediately stop the infusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An irregular heart rate is a critical sign of hyperkalemia, a serious condition that can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Stopping the infusion promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. The healthcare professional should inform the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because pain at the IV site is common and may not necessitate stopping the infusion. Choice C is incorrect as swelling at the IV site may indicate a local reaction but is not a reason to stop the infusion. Choice D is incorrect as an elevated blood pressure alone is not a direct indication to stop the infusion of IV potassium chloride.

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