HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Dependent edema.
- B. Ascites.
- C. Nocturia.
- D. Orthopnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Orthopnea (D) is most consistent with left-sided heart failure. It is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up or standing. Dependent edema (A), ascites (B), and nocturia (C) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema refers to swelling due to fluid accumulation, ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and nocturia is the excessive need to urinate during the night, all of which are more indicative of right-sided heart failure.
2. When culturing a wound, the nurse should obtain the sample from which part of the wound?
- A. The outer edges of the wound.
- B. All necrotic sections of the wound.
- C. Areas containing purulent or pooled exudates.
- D. Any particularly painful area of the wound.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To collect a wound culture, the nurse should first clean the wound to remove skin flora and then insert a sterile swab from a culturette tube into the wound secretions.
3. Prior to Mr. Landon undergoing a tracheostomy, what is the top nursing priority?
- A. Shaving the neck.
- B. Establishing a means of communication.
- C. Inserting a Foley catheter.
- D. Starting an IV.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before Mr. Landon undergoes a tracheostomy, the top nursing priority is to establish a means of communication. This is essential to ensure that Mr. Landon can effectively communicate his needs during and after the procedure. Shaving the neck (Choice A) may be necessary for the tracheostomy but is not the top priority. Inserting a Foley catheter (Choice C) and starting an IV (Choice D) are important nursing interventions but are not the priority before a tracheostomy procedure, where communication is key for patient safety and comfort.
4. While suctioning a client’s nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client’s oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
- A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
- B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
- C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
- D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client’s nose and mouth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A stable oxygen saturation reading of 94% indicates that the nurse can continue with the suctioning procedure. It is within an acceptable range, and there is no immediate need to interrupt the procedure. Continuing with the suctioning will help maintain airway patency and promote adequate oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unnecessary when the reading is stable. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support stopping the suctioning procedure solely based on the oxygen saturation reading of 94%. Choice D is not the best action at this point, as applying an oxygen mask is not indicated when the oxygen saturation is stable and within an acceptable range.
5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer regular insulin IV.
- B. Administer IV fluids at 250 ml/hr.
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV push.
- D. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.
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