Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
• B. Administer intravenous insulin and glucose.
• C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
• D. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous insulin and glucose. In the presence of hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to shift potassium back into the cells to lower serum levels. Insulin, in combination with glucose, helps drive potassium intracellularly. Administering calcium gluconate (choice A) is used to stabilize myocardial cell membranes but does not address the underlying cause of hyperkalemia. Administering sodium bicarbonate (choice C) is not the initial treatment for hyperkalemia. Loop diuretics (choice D) may be used later to enhance potassium excretion but are not the primary intervention for acute hyperkalemia.

2. A client who developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) associated with small carcinoma of the lung is preparing for discharge. When teaching the client about self-management with demeclocycline (Declomycin), the nurse should instruct the client to report which condition to the healthcare provider?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Muscle cramping
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle cramping. SIADH causes dilutional hyponatremia due to increased ADH release. Demeclocycline is used to block the action of ADH. Muscle cramping can indicate electrolyte imbalances related to hyponatremia, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. Insomnia, increased appetite, and anxiety are not typically associated with the side effects or complications of demeclocycline or SIADH.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.

4. An 11-year-old client is admitted to the mental health unit after trying to run away from home and threatening self-harm. The nurse establishes a goal to promote effective coping and plans to ask the client to verbalize three ways to deal with stress. Which activity is best to establish rapport and accomplish this therapeutic goal?

• A. Play a board game with the client and begin talking about stressors
• B. Conduct a formal therapy session
• C. Ask the client to write down their feelings
• D. Have a group discussion about stress management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Playing a board game with the client and initiating a conversation about stressors is the best choice to establish rapport and achieve the therapeutic goal of helping the client verbalize ways to cope with stress. Board games provide a relaxed and non-threatening environment, allowing the client to feel more comfortable and open up about their stressors. Choice B, conducting a formal therapy session, might be too structured and intimidating for the client, hindering open communication. Choice C, asking the client to write down their feelings, lacks the interactive and engaging aspect that a board game provides. Choice D, having a group discussion about stress management, may not be as effective initially as one-on-one interaction to build trust and rapport with the client.

5. A client's subjective data includes dysuria, urgency, and urinary frequency. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Collect a clean-catch specimen
• B. Administer prescribed antibiotics
• C. Perform a bladder scan
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to collect a clean-catch specimen. This is essential to diagnose the cause of the client's symptoms accurately before initiating any treatment. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) without confirming the diagnosis through a specimen collection can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Performing a bladder scan (Choice C) may not provide the necessary information to identify the specific cause of the symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is a general recommendation and may not address the underlying issue causing the symptoms.

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